I have setup a job in Dynamics CRM 2016 that runs and create email records.
My question is: An email record is created even if TO field is empty, but when CRM tries to send the email, will it raise an exception (to use in try-catch)?
It will crash. It's a good idea to create every email inside a try-catch and skip those who crash.
Related
I am developing an authentication system using express, So I have a unique email field in the database
should I check the email first and if it exists throw a new custom error Or let the database throw the error?
I want to know what is better
Consumers of your API don't and shouldn't know what kind of database you use.
The error that makes it back to them should encapsulate all of it and specifically tell them what is wrong in some standard format with a good HTTP status code.
Database-specific errors leaking to the user should usually be considered a bug.
Both.
You should write code to check that the email exists before you attempt the insert.
But if that check finds no email, you might still get an error, because of a race condition. For example, in the brief moment between checking for the email and then proceeding to insert the row, some other concurrent session may insert its own row using that email. So your insert will get a duplicate key error in that case, even though you had checked and found the email not present.
Then why bother checking? Because if you use a table with an auto_increment primary key, a failed insert generates and then discards an auto-increment value.
This might seem like a rare and insignificant amount of waste. Also, we don't care that auto-increment id's are consecutive.
But I did help fix an application for a customer where they had a problem that new users were trying 1500 times to create unique accounts before succeeding. So they were "losing" thousands of auto-increment id's for every account. After a couple of months, they exhausted the range of the signed integer.
The fix I recommended was to first check that the email doesn't exist, to avoid attempting the insert if the email is found. But you still have to handle the race condition just in case.
I need to trigger an email with all the stats like Count of Rows which are successfully loaded in the target, Failed rows count with the help of Informatica Powercenter.
So where can I find this information for the Workflow and how can I used that information to trigger the email to respective people.
There is an email task present in the Informatica which I am hoping I can use that.
You can use built-in session parameters to collect session run details, e.g.:
$PMSessionName: Name of the Informatica session.
$PMSourceName#TableName: Name of the source table name.
$PMTargetName#TableName: Name of the target table name.
$PMSourceQualifierName#numAffectedRows: Number of records returned
from source.
$PMTargetName#numAffectedRows: Number of record
inserted/updated into the target table.
$PMTargetName#numRejectedRows: Number of records error out in target.
Here's more info: http://powercenternotes.blogspot.com/2014/01/an-etl-framework-for-operational.html
you are right. You can use e mail task. Or you can use post session email command to send mail with statistics - like output file, counts etc.
I need to trigger an email with all the stats like Count of Rows which are successfully loaded in the target, Failed rows count with the help of Informatica Powercenter.
Since you are looking for session level count, you may want to look into using post-session email and using the email variables.
...trigger the email to respective people. There is an email task present in the Informatica which I am hoping I can use that.
If you need to use email task, in the link going to email task, you can double-click on the link, and set link condition to trigger which email task to go towards.
After reading tons of information on the web about Azure WebJobs, documentation says a job should be idempotent, on the other hand, blogs say they use WebJobs to do actions such as "charging a customer", "sending an e-mail".
This documentation says that running a continuous WebJob on multiple instances with a queue could result in being called more than once. Do people really ignore the fact that they could charge their customer twice, or send an e-mail twice?
How can I make sure I can run a WebJob with a queue on a scaled web app and messages are processed only once?
I do this using a database, an update query with a row lock and TransactionScope object.
In your Order table, create a column to manage the state of the action you are taking in your WebJob. i.e. EmailSent.
In the QueueTrigger function begin a transaction, then execute an UPDATE query on the customer order with ROWLOCK set, that sets EmailSent = 1 with a WHERE EmailSent = 0. If the return value from SqlCommand = 0 then exit the function. Another WebJob has already sent the email. Otherwise, send the email and call Complete() on the TransactionScope object if sent successfully.
That should provide the idempotency you want.
Hope that helps.
I have a database reader channel set up that actually reads the database at 10 second intervals and sends to a web service just fine. We get a valid response from the wsdl.
However, I need to update the database record so that it is flagged as having been processed. in this case we are simple changing a field from 100 to 101. However, when I try to update the field OR send an email containing ANY data that has been stored into mapper variables I get nothing. The database does not update. Emails send blanks for fields.
When I go into the channel messages for processed messages I can see good data in the Raw Message and Encoded Message tabs. There are no values in the Mappings tab.
Any suggestions on troubleshooting?
The Run-on-Update statement does not have access to the channel map, as it runs after message Encoding (and even the post-processor, I believe).
It DOES have access to the globalChannelMap and the responseMap. Put your new ID in the globalChannelMap and you should be good to go.
If you also want to send an email, would recommend you instead add an SMTP Writer destination (e.g., SMTP writer), which will have access to any channelMap variables created in a 'Destination 1'; as well as the globalChannelMap.
When a new lead comes in, I want to use a before trigger and a Visualforce email template that contains lead field values to send an email using the SingleEmailMessage class. The email is being generated, but all of the lead fields are null even though (known via System.Debug) they do have values going into the call.
Since I'm passing the still-unsaved lead Id via the mail.setWhatId(lead.Id) method, I'm beginning to think that the mail class is using the Id value and trying to do a database look-up rather than as a reference to the still unsaved lead in memory.
Does anyone know if that's the case? My class works flawlessly when the lead already exists.
If it is the case that the Apex mail class does a DB read, any pattern suggestions for the case where one needs to send and email and update a lead field value before the lead is saved? I can't use the Workflow email notification because the email is being addressed to customers, and there's some additional Apex code that sorts out what address to fetch from existing Account records based on some Lead fields--hence I think the need for using VF email templates in the first place.
setWhatId (and pretty much any method that takes an ID value as an argument) definitely does expect the row to be persisted already. To get around this, you should be able to just do your field update in the before trigger, and add an after trigger to send the email.