When a new lead comes in, I want to use a before trigger and a Visualforce email template that contains lead field values to send an email using the SingleEmailMessage class. The email is being generated, but all of the lead fields are null even though (known via System.Debug) they do have values going into the call.
Since I'm passing the still-unsaved lead Id via the mail.setWhatId(lead.Id) method, I'm beginning to think that the mail class is using the Id value and trying to do a database look-up rather than as a reference to the still unsaved lead in memory.
Does anyone know if that's the case? My class works flawlessly when the lead already exists.
If it is the case that the Apex mail class does a DB read, any pattern suggestions for the case where one needs to send and email and update a lead field value before the lead is saved? I can't use the Workflow email notification because the email is being addressed to customers, and there's some additional Apex code that sorts out what address to fetch from existing Account records based on some Lead fields--hence I think the need for using VF email templates in the first place.
setWhatId (and pretty much any method that takes an ID value as an argument) definitely does expect the row to be persisted already. To get around this, you should be able to just do your field update in the before trigger, and add an after trigger to send the email.
Related
I need to add a custom header to an email using the System.Net.Mail.MailMessage class and then using the Microsoft.Exchange.WebServices.Data.EmailMessage class I need to read that value.
What I'm trying to do exactly is bounce processing for emails we send out. I am generating a new Guid value and adding it to the headers right before it's sent. I'm storing that value in a database and need to match it up when a separate process scans the inbox for processing. I all of that working except one part - I can't get the message ID from the header.
I know messages have a Message-ID header (which is automatically added) and I can access that but what I'm having difficulty with is getting that value when it's sent in the first place. Is that even possible? If so I'll use that instead of my own value.
I can get the email address and the other relevant information but the system I've written uses the message ID I was assigning as the foreign key used in joins in the database.
Any guidance on this would be appreciated. I doubt I'm the only person whose ever tried doing this.
Sorry everyone, the email I was testing with didn't have the header in it, that's why it couldn't be found.
I created a new email with it added and I could access it through the InternetMessageHeaders property of the EmailMessage object.
The title may not be as accurate, if someone finds a better one and can update it, please do so :)
I have a small CMS to edit users.
I'm using Zend Framework 2 + Doctrine 2.
I have a fieldset + form to add a user and (possibly) the same one to update them.
The User entity has the following fields:id, username, password, email.
The fieldset has two validators that check if the username and the email already exist.
Since I'm using the same to update the users, when I change for example the username of the user and keep the email the same, it throws an error that the "email exists" (which is normal due to the validator) and the same when I change the username and keep the email etc.
What I want is to avoid that behavior and make it so it checks them only when they are really changed/updated.
I thought of some ways, but I'm not sure what the "best" approach would be to this.
Hardcode the whole thing, by checking if the fields change and then do the validation (which makes the whole fieldset pretty much useless)
Make a function in the User entity that accepts an array with the new values, then compares them to the old ones and passes the changed ones to a "validation" function that returns the errors (which is mostly like the previous way, but I guess a bit more structured)
Write a validator and attach it to a new form which will query the db to check if the email/username exists and it's not already in use by the particular id, but I'm not quite sure on how to write it since I can't figure out how to pass the id and the field to the validator
I guess the 3rd one would be the best since it does 2 jobs at one time, by checking if the field changed and is not already in use by another user.
What do you suggest? How do you deal with that kind of scenario?
I can post any code that is needed, but I think this is more of a structural problem and that the code I used is too common and easy to figure out.
Sorry if this is sort of confusing because I'm not sure how to word this. I am trying to create a workflow that runs off of Account's in Microsoft CRM 2011. One part of this workflow requires me to retrieve a field contained in the Business Unit of the User in the Account's "Created By" field. However, the workflow will only allow me to access the Business Unit itself, but not any of its fields.
I'm wondering if there is a simple trick or work-around that will allow me access to this data.
Thanks!
For reference, the Account has a User, who has a Business Unit, and the Business Unit has a field I need to access. CRM, however, doesn't want to let me get more than 2 levels deep when accessing fields.
Clunky but do-able if you accept a bit of denormalisation (temporarily or otherwise). I'll assume for the sake of example you want to get at the "cost centre" field from the BU.
Add a field on User entity to temporarily hold the value from the BU (so make it same type and length, text(100) in this case), optionally put it on the form.
Create a child workflow for the User entity to update the user with the "cost centre" value from their BU. Make it only available to run as a child, not onDemand or anything else. Activate
In your Account workflow, add a step to call the child workflow against the relevant user (eg Created By in your case).
Add a step to wait until the new cost centre field on the user record contains data.
Now do whatever you need to with the value from the user record, such as update the Account, or do some branched logic.
Whatever you do, once you have used the value, clear the field on the user record, or do this as the last step of the workflow.
Now, since Users don't change BU very often, you might actually just go ahead and keep that value on the User record permanently, and instead of a child workflow, simply run this on create of a new user, or on change of BU, and store the value permanently on the User record. Yes, it is 'denormalised' and not purest SQL design, but then you don't need a child workflow, you don't need a wait state and you don't have to clear the value at the end, or worry about what happens when two Accounts need to run their workflow at the same time. I include the more general approach above as this might apply to other records which do change their parent quite often.
Just an additional thought - you can access the "owning business unit" of the Account, but this will be the BU of the Owning User, rather than the Created By, but is your business process such that this would normally be the same person? (eg users only have Create priviledge to "user owned" depth, so can only create records they own).
If so, then you could get at the BU directly from the Account, and then any fields on it too (in a condition or to update the Account)
Alternative which is less ideal but a similar approach - add a relationship from Account to BU (eg "created BU"). Now you can update the Account with this by referring to the Created By User's BU, then in the next step, reference this value from the Account. This is again denormalised, and less preferable since number of Accounts is far greater than number of users, so the level of duplicate information is much higher.
You can't get deeper with the standard steps of a workflow.
The solution is to create a custom workflow activity, you can start from this article:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg328515.aspx
I'm trying to wrap my head around CQRS. I'm drawing from the code example provided here. Please be gentle I'm very new to this pattern.
I'm looking at a logon scenario. I like this scenario because it's not really demonstrated in any examples i've read. In this case I do not know what the aggregate id of the user is or even if there is one as all I start with is a username and password.
In the fohjin example events are always fired from the domain (if needed) and the command handler calls some method on the domain. However if a user logon is invalid I have no domain to call anything on. Also most, if not all of the base Command/Event classes defined in the fohjin project pass around an aggregate id.
In the case of the event LogonFailure I may want to update a LogonAudit report.
So my question is: how to handle commands that do not resolve to a particular aggregate? How would that flow?
public void Execute(UserLogonCommand command)
{
var user = null;//user looked up by username somehow, should i query the report database to resolve the username to an id?
if (user == null || user.Password != command.Password)
;//What to do here? I want to raise an event somehow that doesn't target a specific user
else
user.LogonSuccessful();
}
You should take into account that it most cases CQRS and DDD is suitable just for some parts of the system. It is very uncommon to model entire system with CQRS concepts - it fits best to the parts with complex business domain and I wouldn't call logging user in a particularly complex business scenario. In fact, in most cases it's not business-related at all. The actual business domain starts when user is already identified.
Another thing to remember is that due to eventual consistency it is extremely beneficial to check as much as we can using only query-side, without event creating any commands/events.
Assuming however, that the information about successful / failed user log-ins is meaningful I'd model your scenario with following steps
User provides name and password
Name/password is validated against some kind of query database
When provided credentials are valid RegisterValidUserCommand(userId) is executed which results in proper event
If provided credentials are not valid
RegisterInvalidCredentialsCommand(providedUserName) is executed which results in proper event
The point is that checking user credentials is not necessarily part of business domain.
That said, there is another related concept, in which not every command or event needs to be business - related, thus it is possible to handle events that don't need aggregates to be loaded.
For example you want to change data that is informational-only and in no way affects business concepts of your system, like information about person's sex (once again, assuming that it has no business meaning).
In that case when you handle SetPersonSexCommand there's actually no need to load aggregate as that information doesn't even have to be located on entities, instead you create PersonSexSetEvent, register it, and publish so the query side could project it to the screen/raport.
Baseline info:
I'm using an external OAuth provider for login. If the user logs into the external OAuth, they are OK to enter my system. However this user may not yet exist in my system. It's not really a technology issue, but I'm using JOliver EventStore for what it's worth.
Logic:
I'm not given a guid for new users. I just have an email address.
I check my read model before sending a command, if the user email
exists, I issue a Login command with the ID, if not I issue a
CreateUser command with a generated ID. My issue is in the case of a new user.
A save occurs in the event store with the new ID.
Issue:
Assume two create commands are somehow issued before the read model is updated due to browser refresh or some other anomaly that occurs before consistency with the read model is achieved. That's OK that's not my problem.
What Happens:
Because the new ID is a Guid comb, there's no chance the event store will know that these two CreateUser commands represent the same user. By the time they get to the read model, the read model will know (because they have the same email) and can merge the two records or take some other compensating action. But now my read model is out of sync with the event store which still thinks these are two separate entities.
Perhaps it doesn't matter because:
Replaying the events will have the same effect on the read model
so that should be OK.
Because both commands are duplicate "Create" commands, they should contain identical information, so it's not like I'm losing anything in the event store.
Can anybody illuminate how they handled similar issues? If some compensating action needs to occur does the read model service issue some kind of compensation command when it realizes it's got a duplicate entry? Is there a simpler methodology I'm not considering?
You're very close to what I'd consider a proper possible solution. The scenario, if I may summarize, is somewhat like this:
Perform the OAuth-entication.
Using the read model decide between a recurring visitor and a new visitor, based on the email address.
In case of a new visitor, send a RegisterNewVisitor command message that gets handled and stored in the eventstore.
Assume there is some concurrency going on that, for the same email address, causes two RegisterNewVisitor messages, each containing what the system thinks is the key associated with the email address. These keys (guids) are different.
Detect this duplicate key issue in the read model and merge both read model records into one record.
Now instead of merging the records in the read model, why not send a ResolveDuplicateVisitorEmailAddress { Key1, Key2 } towards your domain model, leaving it up to the domain model (the codified form of the business decision to be taken) to resolve this issue. You could even have a dedicated read model to deal with these kind of issues, the other read model will just get a kind of DuplicateVisitorEmailAddressResolved event, and project it into the proper records.
Word of warning: You've asked a technical question and I gave you a technical, possible solution. In general, I would not apply this technique unless I had some business indicator that this is worth investing in (what's the frequency of a user logging in concurrently for the first time - maybe solving it this way is just a way of ignoring the root cause (flakey OAuth, no register new visitor process in place, etc)). There are other technical solutions to this problem but I wanted to give you the one closest to what you already have in place. They range from registering new visitors sequentially to keeping an in-memory projection of the visitors not yet in the read model.