Is this language regular? {a^i b^j| i=j mod 19} - pumping-lemma

I know that {a^i b^j | i = j } is not regular and I can prove with pumping lemma; similarly I can use pumping lemma to prove this one not regular too. But I think I see some similar problem that says such language is actually regular. And because I'm not confident about my knowledge in pumping lemma I'm asking this bad question. Sorry.
This is how I prove it: let w be a^p b^(19k+p) , clearly this is in the language. Then if I pump a, making it a^(p+1) b^(19k+p) . It fails. Therefore, it's not regular.
Is my proof right?

Take a look at this answer. In short, you're not pumping the string correctly. The pumping lemma states that your string w can be divided as w = xyz where |xy| ≥ p, and y is not empty. You can then pump the string as xyiz for all i ≥ 0.
The key here, is that the pumping lemma states that there exists a division of the string w satisfying these properties, you do not get to choose the division, and that you can only pump the string as xyiz.
However, this language is regular, so the pumping lemma can't be used to prove if a language is regular, it can only prove if a language is irregular (it's a necessary but not sufficient condition). To show that a language is regular you can construct a DFA, NFA or regular expression that describes your language exactly. One such regular expression is:
(a^19)*(e|ab|aabb|aaabbb|...|a^18b^18)(b^19)*
where e is the empty string.
I suspect that your language is an example from an introductory course in automata or computation. If you're interested, the Myhill-Nerode theorem is not often covered in introductory material, but in this case offers a very easy proof of regularity: consider the distinguising extensions b, bb, bbb, ..., b^19 and the proof follows relatively easily from that.

Related

in coq how to assume equality of two natural numbers

I want to use this definition to assume that certain equalities on the members of set R hold:
Definition wiring: Prop
(globalHasVoltage -> (voltageOf voltageIn) = vcc)
/\
(globalHasGround -> (
(voltageOf control) = zero
/\
(voltageOf ground) = zero
)
)
.
It seems coq distinguishes between Prop and bool, what are the differences, and how may i solve that issue?
Also If this definition implies some other definition (per say lets call it toBeEvaluated) and assuming that conversion between bool and prop can be done could this
Definition toBeEvaluated: Prop := (voltageOf voltageIn) = vcc.
be proven using unwraps and tauto. (In particular will it work with functions which have exact definitions)
The difference between Prop and bool is that definitions in Prop might be undecidable, while definitions in bool can always be computed (unless you use axioms). Many number types have bool and Prop equality operators, but R doesn't because equality in R is in principle undecidable, so one can't write an equality function for R which results in a bool. Imagine e.g. the equality of different infinite series which sum up to pi - one can't design a general algorithm which decides if two series result in pi or not. Electronics uses functions like sin which rely on such infinite series.
A few options / thoughts:
R is not a very appropriate type for signal levels. E.g. voltage levels like GND or VCC are not mathematically equal everywhere. You could e.g. work with ranges in Q to express signal levels.
Another appropriate type might be floating point numbers, which are supported by Coq (meanwhile also natively). Have a look at the coq-flocq package. For floating point numbers equality is decidable, but they won't be able to represent a voltage like 1.8V exactly.
Another option is to have an inductive type which has a few well known signal levels (GND, VCC, ...) but also a constructor for arbitrary R (either classic or constructive). At least for the well known levels equality would be decidable then, but not for the arbitrary levels.
Even though = is not decidable in R, you can usually proof equality of R expressions, e.g. using the ring or field tactic. But you can't prove automatically that say sin(pi/4)=cos(pi/4). Well of cause one can automate this as well, but such automation always will have limits. But this means that your equalities always need to be proven with tactics and can't be just computed.

Reusing lia tactic to prove decidability

I have an abstract syntax for Presburger arithmetic, along with a fixpoint function determining a given formula's propositional denotation (you can see it here: https://gist.github.com/d4hines/d9a0c674f324cab46d2cf0967bde1ac3).
I'd like to prove that the truth value of any given formula is decidable. Since it's Presburger arithmetic, I know it must decidable. I've heard that the decision procedures for Presburger arithmetic are very complicated. I'd like to reuse the existing one in Coq.
How can I do this?
Thanks!
There are a few reasons why lia will not be of great help to you.
A small true goal like exists x : Z, 2 < x < 4 is not solved by lia: this tactic is not complete for Prestburger arithmetic
Even if lia was complete for Presburger, it would act as an oracle: giving you an answer every time you need one for a true formula. But when presented with a false formula, lia only says to Coq I can't do it, it does not say I have a proof that this can't be done. In other words, the information that a proof procedure is complete may not be stored in the Coq system as a Coq readable proof.

Injectivity of successor of natural numbers in Coq

I am a little confused whether the injectivity of the successor function defined on natural numbers in Coq is an axiom? According to Wikipedia/Peano axioms, it is an axiom (7). When I look at Coq.Init.Peano manual page I see the following:
Definition eq_add_S n m (H: S n = S m): n = m := f_equal pred H.
Hint Immediate eq_add_S: core.
and it looks like an axiom (?) but what confused me was that in the top of that page it said:
It states various lemmas and theorems about natural numbers, including Peano's axioms of arithmetic (in Coq, these are provable)
This sentence is a bit ambiguous no?
The command you saw is actually a proof of the injectivity of the S constructor. More precisely, it says that the successor function is injective because it has an inverse: the predecessor function (pred). (In Coq, axioms are generally introduced with the keyword Axiom.)
You seem to be confused by what I think are two related senses of the word "axiom." The broader sense in logic is that of a "starting point of reasoning" (Wikipedia). The narrower sense is that of an assertion that is taken for granted in a deductive system without further proof. In Peano arithmetic, Peano's axioms are axioms in both senses of the word, since they primitive. In Coq, ZFC set theory, and other systems, they can be proved from more elementary facts.

What forms of goal in Coq are considered to be "true"?

When I prove some theorem, my goal evolves as I apply more and more tactics. Generally speaking the goal tends to split into sub goals, where the subgoals are more simple. At some final point Coq decides that the goal is proven. How this "proven" goal may look like? These goals seems to be fine:
a = a. (* Any object is identical to itself (?) *)
myFunc x y = myFunc x y. (* Result of the same function with the same params
is always the same (?) *)
What else can be here or can it be that examples are fundamentally wrong?
In other words, when I finally apply reflexivity, Coq just says ** Got it ** without any explanation. Is there any way to get more details on what it actually did or why it decided that the goal is proven?
You're actually facing a very general notion that seems not so general because Coq has some user-friendly facility for reasoning with equality in particular.
In general, Coq accepts a goal as solved as soon as it receives a term whose type is the type of the goal: it has been convinced the proposition is true because it has been convinced the type that this proposition describes is inhabited, and what convinced it is the actual witness you helped build along your proof.
For the particular case of inductive datatypes, the two ways you are going to be able to proved the proposition P a b c are:
by constructing a term of type P a b c, using the constructors of the inductive type P, and providing all the necessary arguments.
or by reusing an existing proof or an axiom in the environment whose type you can get to match P a b c.
For the even more particular case of equality proofs (equality is just an inductive datatype in Coq), the same two ways I list above degenerate to this:
the only constructor of equality is eq_refl, and to apply it you need to show that the two sides are judgementally equal. For most purposes, this corresponds to goals that look like T a b c = T a b c, but it is actually a slightly more broad notion of equality (see below). For these, all you have to do is apply the eq_refl constructor. In a nutshell, that is what reflexivity does!
the second case consists in proving that the equality holds because you have other equalities in your context, nothing special here.
Now one part of your question was: when does Coq accept that two sides of an equality are equal by reflexivity?
If I am not mistaken, the answer is when the two sides of the equality are αβδιζ-convertible.
What this grossly means is that there is a way to make them syntactically equal by repeated applications of:
α : sane renaming of non-free variables
β : computing reducible expressions
δ : unfolding definitions
ι : simplifying matches
ζ : expanding let-bound expressions
[someone please correct me if more rules apply or if I got one wrong]
For instance some of the things that are not captured by these rules are:
equality of functions that do more or less the same thing in different ways:
(fun x => 0 + x) = (fun x => x + 0)
quicksort = mergesort
equality of terms that are stuck reducing but would be equal:
forall n, 0 + n = n + 0

Prove language irregular with pumping Lemma

I am trying to prove that the following language is not regular using the pumping lemma
L= { a^i b^j | i^2 > j}
Any tips on this? I am completely stuck.
Thanks.
The pumping lemma says:
If a language A is regular => there is a number p (pumping length) where, if s is any string in L such that |s| >= p, then s may be divided into three pieces s=xyz, satisfying the following condition:
xyiz is in L for each i>=0
|y|>=0
p>=|xy|
The right way to show that a certain language L is not regular is to suppose L regular and try to reach a contradiction.
Lets try to demonstrate that L = {0n1n}|n>=0} is not regular.
We start assuming to the contrary that L is regular.
You can think about this kind of demonstration as a game:
Challenger: He choose the pumping length p. You cannot do any presumption on it.
You: Now it is your turn: choose the "kind" of string that represents the irregularity of the language.
Lets say that the string is in the form 0p1p.
A good tip in this step is to try to limit the adversary next move.
Challenger: He presents to you a string s in the form 0p1p.
You: It's time to pump! If you chose correctly the form of the string in your previous move, you can do some assumption. In our case, for example, we know that the substring y consists only of 0s (at least one 0 because |y|>0), because |xy|<=p and first p-elements are 0s.
Now we show that it exists i>=0 such that xyiz is not in L. For example, for i=2 the string xyyz has more 0s than 1s and so is not a member of L. This case is a contradiction. => L is not regular.
Never forget to demonstrate why the pumped string cannot be a member of L.
If you have any doubt, feel free to ask :)
Cheers.
To the above answer, "The pumping lemma says: If a language A is regular => there is a number p (pumping length) where, if s is any string in L such that |s| >= p, then s may be divided into three pieces s=xyz, satisfying the following condition:"
You mean "If a language L is regular"
Also, the three conditions
1. xy^iz is in L for each i>=0
2. |y|>=0
3. p>=|xy|
The second should be just |y| > 0 not >=
Say you choose the string:
a^2b^5
aabbbbb. Which is in the language.
Now your opponent can choose XYZ.
Their options:
1.) X(empty)Y(some a's)
2.) X(some a's)Y(some a's and some b's)
3.) X(some a's)Y(some a's)
Based on their possible choices, you pump up Y using Y^i where i is an arbitrary number of your choice.
Say they choose 1.)
X(-)Y(a)Z(abbbbb)
If you "pump" up Y^i choosing i = 0. The new string becomes abbbbb. Which is not in the language.
Repeat this for each possible choice of the opponent, if you can pump up Y in a way that produces a string that is not in the language L, then you've succeeded in proving that the language is not regular.