Using Entity Framework 4.1 code first and POCO entities in MVC3; I would like to create a single-row table called ActiveBlog, which has an id, and holds a reference to a blog table.
ActiveBlog
PK: ID, FK: BlogID
How can I define a table, both in the database and in my POCO entity, that is constraint to only hold one row?
Set a trigger in your database. See http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/forums/en-us/sqldatabaseengine/thread/FCC7CECA-CF2F-42E2-8E79-1DCB5A3B82EC
You can't/shouldn't - you would/should have to check its row count every time.
Ideally you want to write this into your repository or whatever class you wrap this Ef object with.
Related
I have a legacy database with a particular table -- I will call it ItemTable -- that can have billions of rows of data. To overcome database restrictions, we have decided to split the table into "silos" whenever the number of rows reaches 100,000,000. So, ItemTable will exist, then a procedure will run in the middle of the night to check the number of rows. If numberOfRows is > 100,000,000 then silo1_ItemTable will be created. Any Items added to the database from now on will be added to silo1_ItemTable (until it grows to big, then silo2_ItemTable will exist...)
ItemTable and silo1_ItemTable can be mapped to the same Item entity because the table structures are identical, but I am not sure how to set this mapping up at runtime, or how to specify the table name for my queries. All inserts should be added to the latest siloX_ItemTable, and all Reads should be from a specified siloX_ItemTable.
I have a separate siloTracker table that will give me the table name to insert/read the data from, but I am not sure how I can use this with entity framework...
Thoughts?
You could try to use the Entity Inheritance to get this. So you have a base class which has all the fields mapped to ItemTable and then you have descendant classes that inherit from ItemTable entity and is mapped to the silo tables in the db. Every time you create a new silo you create a new entity mapped to that silo table.
[Table("ItemTable")]
public class Item
{
//All the fields in the table goes here
}
[Table("silo1_ItemTable")]
public class Silo1Item : Item
{
}
[Table("silo2_ItemTable")]
public class Silo2Item : Item
{
}
You can find more information on this here
Other option is to create a view that creates a union of all those table and map your entity to that view.
As mentioned in my comment, to solve this problem I am using the SQLQuery method that is exposed by DBSet. Since all my item tables have the exact same schema, I can use the SQLQuery to define my own query and I can pass in the name of the table to the query. Tested on my system and it is working well.
See this link for an explanation of running raw queries with entity framework:
EF raw query documentation
If anyone has a better way to solve my question, please leave a comment.
[UPDATE]
I agree that stored procedures are also a great option, but for some reason my management is very resistant to make any changes to our database. It is easier for me (and our customers) to put the sql in code and acknowledge the fact that there is raw sql. At least I can hide it from the other layers rather easily.
[/UPDATE]
Possible solution for this problem may be using context initialization with DbCompiledModel param:
var builder = new DbModelBuilder(DbModelBuilderVersion.V6_0);
builder.Configurations.Add(new EntityTypeConfiguration<EntityName>());
builder.Entity<EntityName>().ToTable("TableNameDefinedInRuntime");
var dynamicContext = new MyDbContext(builder.Build(context.Database.Connection).Compile());
For some reason in EF6 it fails on second table request, but mapping inside context looks correct on the moment of execution.
Considering this database:
This is what EF generates:
I think that HeroesItem class, is useless, and there should be a navigation property Items on Hero class and a navigation property Heroes on Item class.
I saw this can be done easily with code first, but how to get it done using database first?
It can be done only if your HeroesItems table does not contain Id column and instead uses IdHero and IdItem as composite primary key. Once you add any additional column to junction table you must map it as entity to have control over that column.
so the story is very simple.
I have one table called Products and another Called categories. In addition, i have another table called ProductCategories that hold the relationship of catetories to their corresponding products (i.e, the table has two columns, ProductId, ColumnId).
For some reason, after adding all those table to my entity model, i don't have "Access" to it, hence i can do myentityModel.ProductCategories, so i could relational items between those two tables.
And yes, the ProductCategores table is added as "Association" to the entity model. i don't really understand that.
EDIT:
I do see that as part of creating new "Product" i can pass EntityCollection of "Category". So i do query from my entity model for a list of the matching categories that the user selected (on the webpage). so for example, i get (after query the model), an Objectset of "Category". However, i encountered two issues:
the 'AddObject' accept only EntityCollection, hence i need to re-create a set and then add all the objects from the ObjectSet to the entityCollection, in this process i need to detach it from the previous model and add it to the new collection. if not, i get an exception.
when i do the SaveChanges, i see that i get an exception that it was actually trying to Create new Category rather than adding new ProductCategory. again, am i missing something here?
Thanks.
This sounds like a Many-to-Many relationship. In your entity model, you don't need to declare the join table as a separate entity. Instead, you configure the relationship between the Products and the Categories as a Many-to-Many and add metadata about the join table. In Hibernate, you would have:
#ManyToMany(targetEntity=Categories.class, cascade={CascadeType.ALL}, fetch = FetchType.LAZY)
#JoinTable(name="tb_products_categories",
joinColumns=#JoinColumn(name="category_id"),
inverseJoinColumns=#JoinColumn(name="product_id")
)
#IndexColumn(name="join_id")
public List<Categories> getCategories() {
return categories;
}
When you query, the ORM layer takes care of determining SQL and traversing table joins.
I have a simple and beginner question.
I have two tables with 1 to N relationship. I want to when I delete a row in parent table, in an
other table the child of that row delete too.
How can I do that using entity framework?
Probably it was asked before, refer to the link below:
Delete an object and all of its related entities in Entity Framework
I do believe that you should handle that at Database level by using CASCADE DELETE ON.
Lets say I have 2 tables on my physical model, Receipt(ID, Location) and LineItem(ID, ReceiptID, ItemName) where a Receipt has multiple LineItems and ReceiptID is a Foreign Key to Receipt's ID.
I want to model these as a single table in my conceptual model, where I only see a table of LineItems with the Location included on each LineItem.
Every time I try to model this in the Entity Modeler, I get an error about how the Primary Key must be the same for every table being combined into the single conceptual entity.
Is this even possible to model using the entity framework?
Thanks!
No there is no way to model this directly. You must either create database view and map that view or import both entities and create QueryView in the model. In both cases resulting entity combining your two tables will become readonly and the only way to support CUD operations will be mapping stored procedures.