I have asked a variation of this question previously for Hibernate. However, I am now working with Eclipselink and it still troubles me. It is very simple:
I need to persist an address object that includes a city name in a many-to-one relationship. I would like to be able to persist the address and cascade save the city - but only if the city is unique. From my understanding this is not supported directly by JPA? Possible solutions include using the city name as the unique id in the city table and querying the city table for a specific city and then adding that object to the address prior to saving. I have certainly seen several StackOverflow questions/answers that seem to suggest this is the approach (JPA cascade persist - many to one)
Am I missing something here? Is there an alternative/better approach?
Yes, the solution is to get the city from the database, create it if it doesn't exist, and set it to the address.
There's no way around that. The city name doesn't have to be the primary key, though. I would use an autogenerated, non-functional, surrogate key as the PK, and add a unique constraint on the name of the city. This would at least allow you to fix typos in city names without having to update the thousand addresses referencing them.
Related
I need some help today related to EF relationship. I have two lookup tables Country and Ethnicity. I want to have nullable foreign keys for both in one my table named Singles, so I defined a relationship in my class like
Single Relation
that generate a table like this, which is good so far
Single Relation Result
But I have other fields like Citizenship and CountryOfBirth which require a foreign key as well from Country table. So, I tried to do the same
Multiple Relation with Same Class
But things getting weird inside sql when table created.
Multiple Relation with Same Class Result
I can understand why it behaves odd but don't know how to make it work. Can you please suggest?
Thanks
You'll need to place your ForeignKey attributes on the navigational properties to point to the nullable ID field (instead of vice-versa), and then use the InverseProperty attribute to properly tell EF exactly what kind of relationship you are trying to accomplish.
This answer will be quite similar to that in this SO question.
I'm using entity framework 4.3 model first and can't figure out why I'm not allowed to have a one to zero-to-one association along with a referential constraint.
I have two main problems. I can't force referential integrity (without manual intervention) and my lazy loading doesn't seem to work... all my 1 to many associations are fine.
I basically have two tables, Loans and Contracts. The Contracts table has a scalar field for LoanId.
Until a loan is submitted, it does not have contract data and I chose not to place everything in the same table due to the size of the contract data. Ie. I don't want contract data retrieved from the database unless it is actually required.
I've searched around and can't seem to find any model first information that clearly answers my questions. Any information that may help me understand and clarify my problem would be greatly appreciated.
Regards
Craig
I guess LoanId field is not a primary key in Contracts table. In such case you cannot have such one-to-one relation because EF doesn't support it. When you create LoanId field in Contracts table the only way to force one-to-one relation is to add unique constraint on that field. EF currently doesn't support unique keys (except primary keys) so the only way to create one-to-one relation is to create relation between primary keys (Loan.Id <-> Contract.Id). If you don't follow this you will get error in designer.
I'm having trouble configuring entity relationships when one entity inherits from another. I'm new to ADO Entity Framework -- perhaps someone more experienced has some tips for how this is best done. I'm using .net 4.
Database tables with fields:
Products (int ID, nvarchar Description)
FoodProducts (int ProductID, bit IsHuge)
Flavors (int ID, int FoodProductID, nvarchar Description)
There are constraints between Products and FoodProducts as well as FoodProducts and Flavors.
Using the designer I create a model from the database. The designer seems to get it right, with a 1:0..1 association between Product and FoodProduct entities, and 1:* association between Flavor and FoodProduct. No errors when I save or build.
Next I set FoodProduct entity to inherit from Product entity. Then I get errors concerning relationship between Product and FoodProduct. Ok, starting fresh, I first delete the relationship between Product and FoodProduct before setting the inheritance. But now I get errors about the relationship between FoodProduct and Flavor. So I delete and then recreate that relationship, connecting Flavor.ID to FoodProduct.ProductID. Now I get other errors.
My question is this: Should I instead be creating relationship between Flavor.FoodProductID and Product.ID? If so, I assume I then could (or should) delete the FoodProduct.ProductID property. Since my database will have many of these types of relationships, am I better off first creating the entity model and exporting the tables to SQL, or importing the database schema and then making many tweaks?
My intent is that there will be several types of products, some of which require many additional fields, some of which do not. So there may be zero or one FoodProducts records associated with each Product record. At least by my thinking, the table for each sub-type (FoodProducts) should be able to "borrow" the primary key from Products (as a FK) to uniquely identify each of its records.
You can find a screen capture here: http://img218.imageshack.us/img218/9720/entityframework.jpg (I'd embed the img but haven't earned the requisite rep' yet!)
Well, I deleted the FoodProduct.ProductID field, as it should always return the same value as Product.ID anyway. Then, as you hinted, I had to manually map the Products.ID field to FoodProducts.ProductID field. Errors resolved. I'll write a little code to test functionality. Thanks for the "observations"!
Couple of observations:
FoodProducts needs a primary key (e,g identity - FoodProductID). Are you sure it should be a 1:0..1 between Food and FoodProducts? I would have thought it should be 1:0..*. For this cardinality to work you need a unique PK on this table.
When you setup inheritance for entities, the parent entity's properties are inherited. So FoodProducts will inherit ID from the Product table.
BUT, on the physical model (database), this field still needs to be mapped to a column on the FoodProducts table - which is why you need the identity field.
After you setup inheritance, you still need to map all the columns on the derived tables. My money is on you have not mapped "ID" on FoodProducts to any column.
If you screencapped your model and show the errors you are getting it would be much easier to diagnose the issue.
I have a table structure like the following:
Companies Addresses
********* *********
ID ID
AddressID ...
BillingAddressID ...
AddressID and BillingAddressID are foreign keys which are present in the Addresses table. When I generate my model based on this table instead of getting what I would expect to get (the AddressID, BillingAddressID) in the company class. I get the following:
public Addresses Addresses { .. }
public global::System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityReference<Addresses> AddressesReference { .. }
public Addresses Addresses1 { .. }
public global::System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityReference<Addresses> Addresses1Reference { .. }
It seems to be replacing BillingAddress with Addresses1 (not quite sure why that's happening). Also this seems to be common wherever I have a foreign key i.e. instead of the ID I get Table then the TableReference.
I think I can see whats happening i.e. instead of giving me the ID alone, it will be doing a lookup and finding the actual record the ID refers to. However, I am not quite sure what the TableReference field is for....
Can explain this a little better for me?
Thanks in advance.
Relationships are represented as objects in Entity Framework, in the same manner as entities. Even if you are not going to work a lot directly on them, relationship object are first class citizens in EF. EF kreates ObjectStateEntry objects for tracking changes on relationships, just like it does it for entities.
That is why there are two references. First one, AddressesReference is a reference to the relationship object, not the exact entity, and second one Addresses is actual entity.
Peter Chan (link), and Julia Lerman in her book Programming Entity Framework, 1st Edition, say that understanding how relationship works in EF is very important. Also they mention that this is first thing that is confusing developer when they start using EF.
The foreign keys are replaced by a reference to the entity (collection) the foreign key points to.
So to add an address to a company you would do something like:
Address a = new Address();
// ... set variables for address here
currentCompany.Addresses = a;
// or, the other way round (for collections)
a.Companies.Add(currentCompany);
EF uses the table names as the reference point when it builds the model and this is why you see "Addresses" and Addresses1". You can open up the entity model in the GUI format and click on each of the associations. These can be renamed to whatever you like, just click on the reference, view the mapping, ensure it is the one that maps "BillingAddressID" to "BillingAddressID" and rename that reference to "BillingAddress".
Note the current "Addresses" reference may be the one mapping the "BillingAddressID" so you have to check both references.
It would probably be best to change the mapping for "AddressID" to be "Address" instead of "Addresses" if it is a one to one mapping as well.
I'm getting more and more frustrated with EF...
I have a table called ExtendedField with:
Record
DocRef
DocType
Name
Record is the primary key
DocRef and DocType are foreign keys used to identify which Ticket they belong to
Name is the key used by the "definition" table to define what the field actually is
So basically I need 2 associations:
One between Ticket and ExtendedField
on ExtendedField.DocRef=ticket.record
and
ExtendedField.docType=HeaderDocType
One between Definition on
ExtendedField.Name=Definition.FieldName
Then I still need Record to be the primary key so I can directly access the fields.
As near as I can tell this is impossible to do in Entity Framework. For every association all the keys need to be mapped together, whereas I need two keys for one association, 1 key for another one and the actual primary key wouldn't be used in any associations.
It doesn't appear that you can define an association between fields that aren't entity keys either.
So is there any way to do this? Am I missing something?
It's a v1, bro. I myself have had some major pain with mapping of key constraints in EF. I hear that better things are coming in v2.