I am aware about spoofing and it is possible to send an E-mail using any address you wanted.
My question is: Is it possible to receive an E-mail using any address you want?
Example: I received an E-mail from iamhimATprivatedomainDOTcom, that has been spoofed. Is it possible to reply to the address and the person who is trying to spoof me, received the E-mail even though privatedomainDOTcom is a private email server?
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When someone signs up they receive an email with a link they need to click to verify their email. The email comes from no_reply#domain.com
So far all clients receive this email with the exception of clients using their own domain with Office365. With these clients it's not an issue of emails going to spam - they don't receive anything at all in either their spam or their inbox.
The email is sent from a domain that uses Google Business for email.
Any ideas how to solve this issue?
I should add that if the email is forwarded manually, it does come through, just not when automatically sent.
I have user in my system who can send emails through my API. The API uses SendGrid to send the emails with their username as the sender + reply-to address.
user_1#mydomain.com
user_2#mydomain.com
user_3#mydomain.com
What I would like to do is allow people to reply to these emails but I'm unsure how to do this.
Obviously if I try to reply as is - I get an error saying the email couldn't be delivered.
Is there something to do with SendGrid which can handle previously unseen addresses #mydomain.com or do I need to do something to set them up initially in the first place?
The solution was to use incoming web-hooks.
I wanted to get some clarity on something that im a bit confused about at the moment.
If i send an email from my outlook, from a gmail account to any other account, the IP of the sender is the correct public IP address.
However, when i send an email from a webmail client such as Gmail.co.uk, the IP address of the sender is private. is this right and Why is this?
Also, my theory is that when emails are sent and received by the same provider such as example#gmail.com to example2#gmail.com, the IP's are again private as the email wont need to divert from gmail servers? Can someone prove me right/wrong on this.
Thanks in advance !
Gmail hides the sender IP for privacy when emails are sent via their web app. I believe the Gmail SMTP server includes the headers though.
No, if the email is still sent via a mail client, there is no reason that the client IP address would be hidden between emails on the same provider.
Sometimes when people try to send me messages they misspell email address and I lose the message.
Example:
If my email is ivijan.stefan#something.com and my client misspell and write evan.steven#something.com or iivijan.stefan#something.com etc, I will lost my email.
Is there a way to use MX record or some DNS setup to server notify me and send message on one master email address where I can see that someone try to contact me and see message?
DNS servers do not understand what an email is. It may be possible to do this at your mail server end though. Look for documentation for catch-all email addresses to receive all email that would have been sent to non-existent email addresses. Note that this may expose you to huge amounts of spam from bots that target well known email addresses like admin#domain or postmaster#domain.
I sent an email to around 30 addresses (seperately).
Some of them replied me back, but the email was forwarded to another address and they replied me from the forwarded address.
Is there anyway I can know what was the email address that I sent to the email before getting a reply for it from the new forwarded address ?
I use outlook 2013.
No, there is no way to tell which of the email addresses originally received the message based on the reply you received.