Related
Having read carefully the previous question
Random numbers that add to 100: Matlab
I am struggling to solve a similar but slightly more complex problem.
I would like to create an array of n elements that sums to 1, however I want an added constraint that the minimum increment (or if you like number of significant figures) for each element is fixed.
For example if I want 10 numbers that sum to 1 without any constraint the following works perfectly:
num_stocks=10;
num_simulations=100000;
temp = [zeros(num_simulations,1),sort(rand(num_simulations,num_stocks-1),2),ones(num_simulations,1)];
weights = diff(temp,[],2);
I foolishly thought that by scaling this I could add the constraint as follows
num_stocks=10;
min_increment=0.001;
num_simulations=100000;
scaling=1/min_increment;
temp2 = [zeros(num_simulations,1),sort(round(rand(num_simulations,num_stocks-1)*scaling)/scaling,2),ones(num_simulations,1)];
weights2 = diff(temp2,[],2);
However though this works for small values of n & small values of increment, if for example n=1,000 & the increment is 0.1% then over a large number of trials the first and last numbers have a mean which is consistently below 0.1%.
I am sure there is a logical explanation/solution to this but I have been tearing my hair out to try & find it & wondered anybody would be so kind as to point me in the right direction. To put the problem into context create random stock portfolios (hence the sum to 1).
Thanks in advance
Thank you for the responses so far, just to clarify (as I think my initial question was perhaps badly phrased), it is the weights that have a fixed increment of 0.1% so 0%, 0.1%, 0.2% etc.
I did try using integers initially
num_stocks=1000;
min_increment=0.001;
num_simulations=100000;
scaling=1/min_increment;
temp = [zeros(num_simulations,1),sort(randi([0 scaling],num_simulations,num_stocks-1),2),ones(num_simulations,1)*scaling];
weights = (diff(temp,[],2)/scaling);
test=mean(weights);
but this was worse, the mean for the 1st & last weights is well below 0.1%.....
Edit to reflect excellent answer by Floris & clarify
The original code I was using to solve this problem (before finding this forum) was
function x = monkey_weights_original(simulations,stocks)
stockmatrix=1:stocks;
base_weight=1/stocks;
r=randi(stocks,stocks,simulations);
x=histc(r,stockmatrix)*base_weight;
end
This runs very fast, which was important considering I want to run a total of 10,000,000 simulations, 10,000 simulations on 1,000 stocks takes just over 2 seconds with a single core & I am running the whole code on an 8 core machine using the parallel toolbox.
It also gives exactly the distribution I was looking for in terms of means, and I think that it is just as likely to get a portfolio that is 100% in 1 stock as it is to geta portfolio that is 0.1% in every stock (though I'm happy to be corrected).
My issue issue is that although it works for 1,000 stocks & an increment of 0.1% and I guess it works for 100 stocks & an increment of 1%, as the number of stocks decreases then each pick becomes a very large percentage (in the extreme with 2 stocks you will always get a 50/50 portfolio).
In effect I think this solution is like the binomial solution Floris suggests (but more limited)
However my question has arrisen because I would like to make my approach more flexible & have the possibility of say 3 stocks & an increment of 1% which my current code will not handle correctly, hence how I stumbled accross the original question on stackoverflow
Floris's recursive approach will get to the right answer, but the speed will be a major issue considering the scale of the problem.
An example of the original research is here
http://www.huffingtonpost.com/2013/04/05/monkeys-stocks-study_n_3021285.html
I am currently working on extending it with more flexibility on portfolio weights & numbers of stock in the index, but it appears my programming & probability theory ability are a limiting factor.......
One problem I can see is that your formula allows for numbers to be zero - when the rounding operation results in two consecutive numbers to be the same after sorting. Not sure if you consider that a problem - but I suggest you think about it (it would mean your model portfolio has fewer than N stocks in it since the contribution of one of the stocks would be zero).
The other thing to note is that the probability of getting the extreme values in your distribution is half of what you want them to be: If you have uniformly distributed numbers from 0 to 1000, and you round them, the numbers that round to 0 were in the interval [0 0.5>; the ones that round to 1 came from [0.5 1.5> - twice as big. The last number (rounding to 1000) is again from a smaller interval: [999.5 1000]. Thus you will not get the first and last number as often as you think. If instead of round you use floor I think you will get the answer you expect.
EDIT
I thought about this some more, and came up with a slow but (I think) accurate method for doing this. The basic idea is this:
Think in terms of integers; rather than dividing the interval 0 - 1 in steps of 0.001, divide the interval 0 - 1000 in integer steps
If we try to divide N into m intervals, the mean size of a step should be N / m; but being integer, we would expect the intervals to be binomially distributed
This suggests an algorithm in which we choose the first interval as a binomially distributed variate with mean (N/m) - call the first value v1; then divide the remaining interval N - v1 into m-1 steps; we can do so recursively.
The following code implements this:
% random integers adding up to a definite sum
function r = randomInt(n, limit)
% returns an array of n random integers
% whose sum is limit
% calls itself recursively; slow but accurate
if n>1
v = binomialRandom(limit, 1 / n);
r = [v randomInt(n-1, limit - v)];
else
r = limit;
end
function b = binomialRandom(N, p)
b = sum(rand(1,N)<p); % slow but direct
To get 10000 instances, you run this as follows:
tic
portfolio = zeros(10000, 10);
for ii = 1:10000
portfolio(ii,:) = randomInt(10, 1000);
end
toc
This ran in 3.8 seconds on a modest machine (single thread) - of course the method for obtaining a binomially distributed random variate is the thing slowing it down; there are statistical toolboxes with more efficient functions but I don't have one. If you increase the granularity (for example, by setting limit=10000) it will slow down more since you increase the number of random number samples that are generated; with limit = 10000 the above loop took 13.3 seconds to complete.
As a test, I found mean(portfolio)' and std(portfolio)' as follows (with limit=1000):
100.20 9.446
99.90 9.547
100.09 9.456
100.00 9.548
100.01 9.356
100.00 9.484
99.69 9.639
100.06 9.493
99.94 9.599
100.11 9.453
This looks like a pretty convincing "flat" distribution to me. We would expect the numbers to be binomially distributed with a mean of 100, and standard deviation of sqrt(p*(1-p)*n). In this case, p=0.1 so we expect s = 9.4868. The values I actually got were again quite close.
I realize that this is inefficient for large values of limit, and I made no attempt at efficiency. I find that clarity trumps speed when you develop something new. But for instance you could pre-compute the cumulative binomial distributions for p=1./(1:10), then do a random lookup; but if you are just going to do this once, for 100,000 instances, it will run in under a minute; unless you intend to do it many times, I wouldn't bother. But if anyone wants to improve this code I'd be happy to hear from them.
Eventually I have solved this problem!
I found a paper by 2 academics at John Hopkins University "Sampling Uniformly From The Unit Simplex"
http://www.cs.cmu.edu/~nasmith/papers/smith+tromble.tr04.pdf
In the paper they outline how naive algorthms don't work, in a way very similar to woodchips answer to the Random numbers that add to 100 question. They then go on to show that the method suggested by David Schwartz can also be slightly biased and propose a modified algorithm which appear to work.
If you want x numbers that sum to y
Sample uniformly x-1 random numbers from the range 1 to x+y-1 without replacement
Sort them
Add a zero at the beginning & x+y at the end
difference them & subtract 1 from each value
If you want to scale them as I do, then divide by y
It took me a while to realise why this works when the original approach didn't and it come down to the probability of getting a zero weight (as highlighted by Floris in his answer). To get a zero weight in the original version for all but the 1st or last weights your random numbers had to have 2 values the same but for the 1st & last ones then a random number of zero or the maximum number would result in a zero weight which is more likely.
In the revised algorithm, zero & the maximum number are not in the set of random choices & a zero weight occurs only if you select two consecutive numbers which is equally likely for every position.
I coded it up in Matlab as follows
function weights = unbiased_monkey_weights(num_simulations,num_stocks,min_increment)
scaling=1/min_increment;
sample=NaN(num_simulations,num_stocks-1);
for i=1:num_simulations
allcomb=randperm(scaling+num_stocks-1);
sample(i,:)=allcomb(1:num_stocks-1);
end
temp = [zeros(num_simulations,1),sort(sample,2),ones(num_simulations,1)*(scaling+num_stocks)];
weights = (diff(temp,[],2)-1)/scaling;
end
Obviously the loop is a bit clunky and as I'm using the 2009 version the randperm function only allows you to generate permutations of the whole set, however despite this I can run 10,000 simulations for 1,000 numbers in 5 seconds on my clunky laptop which is fast enough.
The mean weights are now correct & as a quick test I replicated woodchips generating 3 numbers that sum to 1 with the minimum increment being 0.01% & it also look right
Thank you all for your help and I hope this solution is useful to somebody else in the future
The simple answer is to use the schemes that work well with NO minimum increment, then transform the problem. As always, be careful. Some methods do NOT yield uniform sets of numbers.
Thus, suppose I want 11 numbers that sum to 100, with a constraint of a minimum increment of 5. I would first find 11 numbers that sum to 45, with no lower bound on the samples (other than zero.) I could use a tool from the file exchange for this. Simplest is to simply sample 10 numbers in the interval [0,45]. Sort them, then find the differences.
X = diff([0,sort(rand(1,10)),1]*45);
The vector X is a sample of numbers that sums to 45. But the vector Y sums to 100, with a minimum value of 5.
Y = X + 5;
Of course, this is trivially vectorized if you wish to find multiple sets of numbers with the given constraint.
So say, I have a = [2 7 4 9 2 4 999]
And I'd like to remove 999 from the matrix (which is an obvious outlier).
Is there a general way to remove values like this? I have a set of vectors and not all of them have extreme values like that. prctile(a,99.5) is going to output the largest number in the vector no matter how extreme (or non-extreme) it is.
There are several way to do that, but first you must define what is "extreme'? Is it above some threshold? above some number of standard deviations?
Or, if you know you have exactly n of these extreme events and that their values are larger than the rest, you can use sort and the delete the last n elements. etc...
For example a(a>threshold)=[] will take care of a threshold like definition, while a(a>mean(a)+n*std(a))=[] will take care of discarding values that are n standard deviation above the mean of a.
A completely different approach is to use the median of a, if the vector is as short as you mention, you want to look on a median value and then you can either threshold anything above some factor of that value a(a>n*median(a))=[] .
Last, a way to assess an approach to treat these spikes would be to take a histogram of the data, and work from there...
I can think of two:
Sort your matrix and remove n-elements from top and bottom.
Compute the mean and the standard deviation and discard all values that fall outside:
mean +/- (n * standard deviation)
In both cases n must be chosen by the user.
Filter your signal.
%choose the value
N = 10;
filtered = filter(ones(1,N)/N, 1, signal);
Find the noise
noise = signal - filtered;
Remove noisy elements
THRESH = 50;
signal = signal(abs(noise) < THRESH);
It is better than mean+-n*stddev approach because it looks for local changes so it won't fail on a slowly changing signal like [1 2 3 ... 998 998].
I have 500,000 values for a variable derived from financial markets. Specifically, this variable represents distance from the mean (in standard deviations). This variable has a arbitrary distribution. I need a formula that will allow me to select a range around any value of this variable such that an equal (or close to it) amount of data points fall within that range.
This will allow me to then analyze all of the data points within a specific range and to treat them as "similar situations to the input."
From what I understand, this means that I need to convert it from arbitrary distribution to uniform distribution. I have read (but barely understood) that what I am looking for is called "probability integral transform."
Can anyone assist me with some code (Matlab preferred, but it doesn't really matter) to help me accomplish this?
Here's something I put together quickly. It's not polished and not perfect, but it does what you want to do.
clear
randList=[randn(1e4,1);2*randn(1e4,1)+5];
[xCdf,xList]=ksdensity(randList,'npoints',5e3,'function','cdf');
xRange=getInterval(5,xList,xCdf,0.1);
and the function getInterval is
function out=getInterval(yPoint,xList,xCdf,areaFraction)
yCdf=interp1(xList,xCdf,yPoint);
yCdfRange=[-areaFraction/2, areaFraction/2]+yCdf;
out=interp1(xCdf,xList,yCdfRange);
Explanation:
The CDF of the random distribution is shown below by the line in blue. You provide a point (here 5 in the input to getInterval) about which you want a range that gives you 10% of the area (input 0.1 to getInterval). The chosen point is marked by the red cross and the
interval is marked by the lines in green. You can get the corresponding points from the original list that lie within this interval as
newList=randList(randList>=xRange(1) & randList<=xRange(2));
You'll find that on an average, the number of points in this example is ~2000, which is 10% of numel(randList)
numel(newList)
ans =
2045
NOTE:
Please note that this was done quickly and I haven't made any checks to see if the chosen point is outside the range or if yCdfRange falls outside [0 1], in which case interp1 will return a NaN. This is fairly straightforward to implement, and I'll leave that to you.
Also, ksdensity is very CPU intensive. I wouldn't recommend increasing npoints to more than 1e4. I assume you're only working with a fixed list (i.e., you have a list of 5e5 points that you've obtained somehow and now you're just running tests/analyzing it). In that case, you can run ksdensity once and save the result.
I do not speak Matlab, but you need to find quantiles in your data. This is Mathematica code which would do this:
In[88]:= data = RandomVariate[SkewNormalDistribution[0, 1, 2], 10^4];
Compute quantile points:
In[91]:= q10 = Quantile[data, Range[0, 10]/10];
Now form pairs of consecutive quantiles:
In[92]:= intervals = Partition[q10, 2, 1];
In[93]:= intervals
Out[93]= {{-1.397, -0.136989}, {-0.136989, 0.123689}, {0.123689,
0.312232}, {0.312232, 0.478551}, {0.478551, 0.652482}, {0.652482,
0.829642}, {0.829642, 1.02801}, {1.02801, 1.27609}, {1.27609,
1.6237}, {1.6237, 4.04219}}
Verify that the splitting points separate data nearly evenly:
In[94]:= Table[Count[data, x_ /; i[[1]] <= x < i[[2]]], {i, intervals}]
Out[94]= {999, 1000, 1000, 1000, 1000, 1000, 1000, 1000, 1000, 1000}
I was wondering what is better style / more efficient:
x = linspace(-1, 1, 100);
or
x = -1:0.01:1;
As Oli Charlesworth mentioned, in linspace you divide the interval [a,b] into N points, whereas with the : form, you step-out from a with a specified step size (default 1) till you reach b.
One thing to keep in mind is that linspace always includes the end points, whereas, : form will include the second end-point, only if your step size is such that it falls on it at the last step else, it will fall short. Example:
0:3:10
ans =
0 3 6 9
That said, when I use the two approaches depends on what I need to do. If all I need to do is sample an interval with a fixed number of points (and I don't care about the step-size), I use linspace.
In many cases, I don't care if it doesn't fall on the last point, e.g., when working with polar co-ordinates, I don't need the last point, as 2*pi is the same as 0. There, I use 0:0.01:2*pi.
As always, use the one that best suits your purposes, and that best expresses your intentions. So use linspace when you know the number of points; use : when you know the spacing.
[Incidentally, your two examples are not equivalent; the second one will give you 201 points.]
As Oli already pointed out, it's usually easiest to use linspace when you know the number of points you want and the colon operator when you know the spacing you want between elements.
However, it should be noted that the two will often not give you exactly the same results. As noted here and here, the two approaches use slightly different methods to calculate the vector elements (here's an archived description of how the colon operator works). That's why these two vectors aren't equal:
>> a = 0:0.1:1;
>> b = linspace(0,1,11);
>> a-b
ans =
1.0e-016 *
Columns 1 through 8
0 0 0 0.5551 0 0 0 0
Columns 9 through 11
0 0 0
This is a typical side-effect of how floating-point numbers are represented. Certain numbers can't be exactly represented (like 0.1) and performing the same calculation in different ways (i.e. changing the order of mathematical operations) can lead to ever so slightly different results, as shown in the above example. These differences are usually on the order of the floating-point precision, and can often be ignored, but you should always be aware that they exist.
I have production (q) values from 4 different methods stored in the 4 matrices. Each of the 4 matrices contains q values from a different method as:
Matrix_1 = 1 row x 20 column
Matrix_2 = 100 rows x 20 columns
Matrix_3 = 100 rows x 20 columns
Matrix_4 = 100 rows x 20 columns
The number of columns indicate the number of years. 1 row would contain the production values corresponding to the 20 years. Other 99 rows for matrix 2, 3 and 4 are just the different realizations (or simulation runs). So basically the other 99 rows for matrix 2,3 and 4 are repeat cases (but not with exact values because of random numbers).
Consider Matrix_1 as the reference truth (or base case ). Now I want to compare the other 3 matrices with Matrix_1 to see which one among those three matrices (each with 100 repeats) compares best, or closely imitates, with Matrix_1.
How can this be done in Matlab?
I know, manually, that we use confidence interval (CI) by plotting the mean of Matrix_1, and drawing each distribution of mean of Matrix_2, mean of Matrix_3 and mean of Matrix_4. The largest CI among matrix 2, 3 and 4 which contains the reference truth (or mean of Matrix_1) will be the answer.
mean of Matrix_1 = (1 row x 1 column)
mean of Matrix_2 = (100 rows x 1 column)
mean of Matrix_3 = (100 rows x 1 column)
mean of Matrix_4 = (100 rows x 1 column)
I hope the question is clear and relevant to SO. Otherwise please feel free to edit/suggest anything in question. Thanks!
EDIT: My three methods I talked about are a1, a2 and a3 respectively. Here's my result:
ci_a1 =
1.0e+008 *
4.084733001497999
4.097677503988565
ci_a2 =
1.0e+008 *
5.424396063219890
5.586301025525149
ci_a3 =
1.0e+008 *
2.429145282593182
2.838897116739112
p_a1 =
8.094614835195452e-130
p_a2 =
2.824626709966993e-072
p_a3 =
3.054667629953656e-012
h_a1 = 1; h_a2 = 1; h_a3 = 1
None of my CI, from the three methods, includes the mean ( = 3.454992884900722e+008) inside it. So do we still consider p-value to choose the best result?
If I understand correctly the calculation in MATLAB is pretty strait-forward.
Steps 1-2 (mean calculation):
k1_mean = mean(k1);
k2_mean = mean(k2);
k3_mean = mean(k3);
k4_mean = mean(k4);
Step 3, use HIST to plot distribution histograms:
hist([k2_mean; k3_mean; k4_mean]')
Step 4. You can do t-test comparing your vectors 2, 3 and 4 against normal distribution with mean k1_mean and unknown variance. See TTEST for details.
[h,p,ci] = ttest(k2_mean,k1_mean);
EDIT : I misinterpreted your question. See the answer of Yuk and following comments. My answer is what you need if you want to compare distributions of two vectors instead of a vector against a single value. Apparently, the latter is the case here.
Regarding your t-tests, you should keep in mind that they test against a "true" mean. Given the number of values for each matrix and the confidence intervals it's not too difficult to guess the standard deviation on your results. This is a measure of the "spread" of your results. Now the error on your mean is calculated as the standard deviation of your results divided by the number of observations. And the confidence interval is calculated by multiplying that standard error with appx. 2.
This confidence interval contains the true mean in 95% of the cases. So if the true mean is exactly at the border of that interval, the p-value is 0.05 the further away the mean, the lower the p-value. This can be interpreted as the chance that the values you have in matrix 2, 3 or 4 come from a population with a mean as in matrix 1. If you see your p-values, these chances can be said to be non-existent.
So you see that when the number of values get high, the confidence interval becomes smaller and the t-test becomes very sensitive. What this tells you, is nothing more that the three matrices differ significantly from the mean. If you have to choose one, I'd take a look at the distributions anyway. Otherwise the one with the closest mean seems a good guess. If you want to get deeper into this, you could also ask on stats.stackexchange.com
Your question and your method aren't really clear :
Is the distribution equal in all columns? This is important, as two distributions can have the same mean, but differ significantly :
is there a reason why you don't use the Central Limit Theorem? This seems to me like a very complex way of obtaining a result that can easily be found using the fact that the distribution of a mean approaches a normal distribution where sd(mean) = sd(observations)/number of observations. Saves you quite some work -if the distributions are alike! -
Now if the question is really the comparison of distributions, you should consider looking at a qqplot for a general idea, and at a 2-sample kolmogorov-smirnov test for formal testing. But please read in on this test, as you have to understand what it does in order to interprete the results correctly.
On a sidenote : if you do this test on multiple cases, make sure you understand the problem of multiple comparisons and use the appropriate correction, eg. Bonferroni or Dunn-Sidak.