I'm trying to make a query for acum the sum of one of fields in a new column, but i dont get it in SqlServer 2008 r2
I have the next table:
Fields: id,Codigo,tipo,cantidad
I want to make a query for get the next result
When the field tipo is 2, the acum begins
Is it possible?
Thanks.
finally i found a good sentence for me
with AcumulaCant as (
select
d.idrecno,
d.tipmov,
d.codart,
d.codalm,
d.cant
from movsto d
)
select *,
CantAcum = (
select SUM(cant)
from AcumulaCant c
where c.idrecno <= AcumulaCant.idrecno
and c.codart = AcumulaCant.codart
and c.codalm = AcumulaCant.codalm),
ROW_NUMBER() over(partition by codart,codalm order by idrecno desc) as rn
from AcumulaCant
order by AcumulaCant.codart,AcumulaCant.codalm,AcumulaCant.idrecno desc
With this sentence i get the acum of the sum quantities by ref.
Thanks to all for your comments.
Related
I was trying to sum up all the values from an array in PostgreSQL, tried different way but always getting the issue function sum(numeric[]) does not exist. Even I have tried with casting, but still that shows the same issue. Am I missing anything here?.
select array_to_json(array_agg(items)) FROM (SELECT SUM(p.total_price) FROM (SELECT
ARRAY_AGG(cart_items.unit_price) FILTER (where cart_items.type = 2) AS total_price
from cart inner join cart_items on cart_items.cart_id = cart.id where cart.id =
40868884) AS p) AS items;
Result is:
array_to_json
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
[{"total_price":[1.867,1.867,1.867,1.867,1.867,1.21,1.867,1.867,1.56,1.867,1.867,1.867,44]}]
Basically, I want to sum up these values of the column prices after taking it from the database.
Fiddle
http://sqlfiddle.com/#!17/3fdd3/4
If what you want to do is sum up the prices in your json "totalprice" fields, then you can use:
select t.*,
(select sum(price)
from (select json_array_elements_text(j.el->'total_price')::numeric as price
from json_array_elements(t.x) j(el)
) j
)
from (select '[{"total_price":[1.867,1.867,1.867,1.867,1.867,1.21,1.867,1.867,1.56,1.867,1.867,1.867,44]}]'::json as x) t
I want to create calculated table that will summarize In_Force Premium from existing table fact_Premium.
How can I filter the result by saying:
TODAY() has to be between `fact_Premium[EffectiveDate]` and (SELECT TOP 1 fact_Premium[ExpirationDate] ORDE BY QuoteID DESC)
In SQL I'd do that like this:
`WHERE CONVERT(date, getdate()) between CONVERT(date, tblQuotes.EffectiveDate)
and (
select top 1 q2.ExpirationDate
from Table2 Q2
where q2.ControlNo = Table1.controlno
order by quoteid` desc
)
Here is my DAX statement so far:
In_Force Premium =
FILTER(
ADDCOLUMNS(
SUMMARIZE(
//Grouping necessary columns
fact_Premium,
fact_Premium[QuoteID],
fact_Premium[Division],
fact_Premium[Office],
dim_Company[CompanyGUID],
fact_Premium[LineGUID],
fact_Premium[ProducerGUID],
fact_Premium[StateID],
fact_Premium[ExpirationDate]
),
"Premium", CALCULATE(
SUM(fact_Premium[Premium])
),
"ControlNo", CALCULATE(
DISTINCTCOUNT(fact_Premium[ControlNo])
)
), // Here I need to make sure TODAY() falls between fact_Premium[EffectiveDate] and (SELECT TOP 1 fact_Premium[ExpirationDate] ORDE BY QuoteID DESC)
)
Also, what would be more efficient way, to create calculated table from fact_Premium or create same table using sql statement (--> Get Data--> SQL Server) ?
There are 2 potential ways in T-SQL to get the next effective date. One is to use LEAD() and another is to use an APPLY operator. As there are few facts to work with here are samples:
select *
from (
select *
, lead(EffectiveDate) over(partition by CompanyGUID order by quoteid desc) as NextEffectiveDate
from Table1
join Table2 on ...
) d
or
select table1.*, oa.NextEffectiveDate
from Table1
outer apply (
select top(1) q2.ExpirationDate AS NextEffectiveDate
from Table2 Q2
where q2.ControlNo = Table1.controlno
order by quoteid desc
) oa
nb. an outer apply is a little similar to a left join in that it will allow rows with a NULL to be returned by the query, if that is not needed than use cross apply instead.
In both these approaches you may refer to NextEffectiveDate in a final where clause, but I would prefer to avoid using the convert function if that is feasible (this depends on the data).
So far I have come up with the below:
WHERE (extract(month FROM orders)) =
(SELECT min(extract(month from orderdate))
FROM orders)
However, that will consequently return zero to many rows, and in my case, many, because many orders exist within that same earliest (minimum) month, i.e. 4th February, 9th February, 15th Feb, ...
I know that a WHERE clause can contain multiple columns, so why wouldn't the below work?
WHERE (extract(day FROM orderdate)), (extract(month FROM orderdate)) =
(SELECT min(extract(day from orderdate)), min(extract(month FROM orderdate))
FROM orders)
I simply get: SQL Error: ORA-00920: invalid relational operator
Any help would be great, thank you!
Sample data:
02-Feb-2012
14-Feb-2012
22-Dec-2012
09-Feb-2013
18-Jul-2013
01-Jan-2014
Output:
02-Feb-2012
14-Feb-2012
Desired output:
02-Feb-2012
I recreated your table and found out you just messed up the brackets a bit. The following works for me:
where
(extract(day from OrderDate),extract(month from OrderDate))
=
(select
min(extract(day from OrderDate)),
min(extract(month from OrderDate))
from orders
)
Use something like this:
with cte1 as (
select
extract(month from OrderDate) date_month,
extract(day from OrderDate) date_day,
OrderNo
from tablename
), cte2 as (
select min(date_month) min_date_month, min(date_day) min_date_day
from cte1
)
select cte1.*
from cte1
where (date_month, date_day) = (select min_date_month, min_date_day from cte2)
A common table expression enables you to restructure your data and then use this data to do your select. The first cte-block (cte1) selects the month and the day for each of your table rows. Cte2 then selects min(month) and min(date). The last select then combines both ctes to select all rows from cte1 that have the desired month and day.
There is probably a shorter solution to that, however I like common table expressions as they are almost all the time better to understand than the "optimal, shortest" query.
If that is really what you want, as bizarre as it seems, then as a different approach you could forget the extracts and the subquery against the table to get the minimums, and use an analytic approach instead:
select orderdate
from (
select o.*,
row_number() over (order by to_char(orderdate, 'MMDD')) as rn
from orders o
)
where rn = 1;
ORDERDATE
---------
01-JAN-14
The row_number() effectively adds a pseudo-column to every row in your original table, based on the month and day in the order date. The rn values are unique, so there will be one row marked as 1, which will be from the earliest day in the earliest month. If you have multiple orders with the same day/month, say 01-Jan-2013 and 01-Jan-2014, then you'll still only get exactly one with rn = 1, but which is picked is indeterminate. You'd need to add further order by conditions to make it deterministic, but I have no idea what you might want.
That is done in the inner query; the outer query then filters so that only the records marked with rn = 1 is returned; so you get exactly one row back from the overall query.
This also avoids the situation where the earliest day number is not in the earliest month number - say if you only had 01-Jan-2014 and 02-Feb-2014; comparing the day and month separately would look for 01-Feb-2014, which doesn't exist.
SQL Fiddle (with Thomas Tschernich's anwer thrown in too, giving the same result for this data).
To join the result against your invoice table, you don't need to join to the orders table again - especially not with a cross join, which is skewing your results. You can do the join (at least) two ways:
SELECT
o.orderno,
to_char(o.orderdate, 'DD-MM-YYYY'),
i.invno
FROM
(
SELECT o.*,
row_number() over (order by to_char(orderdate, 'MMDD')) as rn
FROM orders o
) o, invoices i
WHERE i.invno = o.invno
AND rn = 1;
Or:
SELECT
o.orderno,
to_char(o.orderdate, 'DD-MM-YYYY'),
i.invno
FROM
(
SELECT orderno, orderdate, invno
FROM
(
SELECT o.*,
row_number() over (order by to_char(orderdate, 'MMDD')) as rn
FROM orders o
)
WHERE rn = 1
) o, invoices i
WHERE i.invno = o.invno;
The first looks like it does more work but the execution plans are the same.
SQL Fiddle with your pastebin-supplied query that gets two rows back, and these two that get one.
I need to update a column in a table to the latest date/time combination from another table. How can I get the latest date/time combination from the one table and then update a column with that date in another table?
The two tables I am using are called dbo.DD and dbo.PurchaseOrders. The JOIN between the two tables are dbo.DueDate.XDORD = dbo.PurchaseOrders.PBPO AND dbo.DueDate.XDLINE = dbo.PurchaseOrders.PBSEQ. The columns from dbo.DueDate that I need the latest date/time from are dbo.DueDate.XDCCTD and dbo.DueDate.XDCCTT.
I need to set dbo.PurchaseOrders.PBDUE = dbo.DueDate.XDCURDT.I can't use an ORDER BY statement in the UPDATE statement, so I'm not sure how to do this. I know row_number sometimes works in these situations, but I'm unsure of how to implement.
The general pattern is:
;WITH s AS
(
SELECT
key, -- may be multiple columns
date_col,
rn = ROW_NUMBER() OVER
(
PARTITION BY key -- again, may be multiple columns
ORDER BY date_col DESC
)
FROM dbo.SourceTable
)
UPDATE d
SET d.date_col = s.date_col
FROM dbo.DestinationTable AS d
INNER JOIN s
ON d.key = s.key -- one more time, may need multiple columns here
WHERE s.rn = 1;
I didn't try to map your table names and columns because (a) I didn't get from your word problem which table was the source and which was the destination and (b) those column names look like alphabet soup and I would have screwed them up anyway.
Did seem though that the OP got this specific code working:
;WITH s AS
(
SELECT
XDORD, XDLINE,
XDCURDT,
rn = ROW_NUMBER() OVER
(
PARTITION BY XDORD, XDLINE
ORDER BY XDCCTD DESC, XDCCTT desc
)
FROM dbo.DueDate
)
UPDATE d
SET d.PBDUE = s.XDCURDT
FROM dbo.PurchaseOrders AS d
INNER JOIN s
ON d.PBPO = s.XDORD AND d.PBSEQ = s.XDLINE
WHERE s.rn = 1;
I would like to do something like this:
CNT=2;
//[edit]
select avg(price) from (
select first :CNT p.Price
from Price p
order by p.Date desc
);
This does not work, Firebird does not allow :cnt as a parameter to FIRST. I need to average the first CNT newest prices. The number 2 changes so it can not be hard-coded.
This can be broken out into a FOR SELECT loop and break when a count is reached. Is that the best way though? Can this be done in a single SQL statement?
Creating the SQL as a string and running it is not the best fit either. It is important that the database compile my SQL statement.
You don't have to use CTE, you can do it directly:
select avg(price) from (
select first :cnt p.Price
from Price p
order by p.Date desc
);
You can use a CTE (Common Table Expression) (see http://www.firebirdsql.org/refdocs/langrefupd21-select.html#langrefupd21-select-cte) to select data before calculate average.
See example below:
with query1 as (
select first 2 p.Price
from Price p
order by p.Date desc
)
select avg(price) from query1