I have this:
Column1 Column2 Column3
Water 1 2€
Water 2 3€
Water 2 5€
Milk 1 8€
Milk 1 4€
Milk 2 10€
Milk 3 1€
I am trying to group a column and sum the column to the side referring to the price.
And I want this:
Column1 Column2 Column3
Water 1 2€
Water 2 8€
Milk 1 12€
Milk 2 10€
Milk 3 1€
How can I do this?
Assuming that the datatype of Column2 is numeric, create a formula-field with the following content and then create a group from this field:
{Table.Column1} + "###" + CStr({Table.Column2})
Now just create the sum for Column3.
If necessary, change the string ### to something else, that will not appear in Column1 and Column2.
Related
I have a table that has data like:
Name
Item_1
Qty_1
Price_1
Item_2
Qty_2
Price_2
...
Item_50
Qty_50
Price_50
Bob
Apples
10
0.50
Pears
5
0.65
...
Lemons
12
0.25
Alice
Cherries
20
1.00
NULL
NULL
NULL
...
NULL
NULL
NULL
I need to process the data per-item, so the ideal form of the data would be:
Name
ItemNo
Item
Qty
Price
Bob
1
Apples
10
0.50
Bob
2
Pears
5
0.65
...
...
...
...
...
Bob
50
Lemons
12
0.25
Alice
1
Cherries
20
1.00
How can I convert between the two forms?
I have looked at the pivot command, but it seems to convert column names into data in a field, not split groups of columns into separate rows. It doesn't look like it will work for this application.
The current code looks something like:
( SELECT t1.Name, 1 AS ItemNo, t1.Item_1 AS Item, t1.Qty_1 AS Qty, t1.Price_1 AS Price FROM table t1
UNION ALL
SELECT t2.Name, 2 AS ItemNo, t2.Item_2 AS Item, t2.Qty_2 AS Qty, t2.Price_2 AS Price FROM table t2
UNION ALL
...
SELECT t50.Name, 50 AS ItemNo, t50.Item_50 AS Item, t50.Qty_50 AS Qty, t50.Price_50 AS Price FROM table t50
)
It works, but it seems hard to maintain. Is there a better way?
Hopefully the reason you want to do this is to fix your design. If not, then make the reason you're asking is to fix your design.
Anyway, one method is to use a VALUES table construct to unpivot the data:
SELECT YT.Name,
V.ItemNo,
V.Item,
V.Qty,
V.Price
FROM dbo.YourTable YT
CROSS APPLY (VALUES(1,YT.Item_1, YT.Qty_1, YT.Price1),
(2,YT.Item_2, YT.Qty_2, YT.Price2),
(3,YT.Item_3, YT.Qty_3, YT.Price3),
... --You get the idea
(49,YT.Item_49, YT.Qty_49, YT.Price49),
(50,YT.Item_50, YT.Qty_50, YT.Price50))V(ItemNo,Item,Qty,Price)
WHERE V.Item IS NOT NULL;
I've been using crosstab in postgres to pivot a table, but am now needing to add in a grouping and I'm not sure if that's possible.
I'm starting with results like this:
Date Account# Type Count
-----------------------------------------
2020/1/1 100 Red 5
2020/1/1 100 Blue 3
2020/1/1 100 Yellow 7
2020/1/2 100 Red 2
2020/1/2 100 Yellow 9
2020/1/1 101 Red 4
2020/1/1 101 Blue 7
2020/1/1 101 Yellow 3
2020/1/2 101 Red 8
2020/1/2 101 Blue 6
2020/1/2 101 Yellow 4
And I'd like to pivot it like this, where there's a row for each combination of date and account #:
Date Account# Red Blue Yellow
---------------------------------------------
2020/1/1 100 5 3 7
2020/1/2 100 2 0 9
2020/1/1 101 4 7 3
2020/1/2 101 8 6 4
This is the code I've written returns the error "The provided SQL must return 3 columns: rowid, category, and values" which makes sense per my understanding of crosstab.
SELECT *
FROM crosstab(
SELECT date, account_number, type, count
FROM table
ORDER BY 2,1,3'
) AS ct (date timestamp, account_number varchar, Red bigint, Blue bigint, Yellow bigint);
(I wrote the dates in a simplified format in the example tables but they are timestamps)
Is there a different way I can manipulate the first table to look like the second? Thank you!
You can do conditional aggregation:
select
date,
account#,
sum(cnt) filter(where type = 'Red' ) red,
sum(cnt) filter(where type = 'Blue' ) blue,
sum(cnt) filter(where type = 'Yellow') yellow
from mytable
group by date, account#
Before, I had to solve something similar:
Here was my pivot and flatten for another solution:
I want to do the same thing on the example below but it is slightly different because there are no ranks.
In my previous example, the table looked like this:
LocationID Code Rank
1 123 1
1 124 2
1 138 3
2 999 1
2 888 2
2 938 3
And I was able to use this function to properly get my rows in a single column.
-- Check if tables exist, delete if they do so that you can start fresh.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb.dbo.#tbl_Location_Taxonomy_Pivot_Table', 'U') IS NOT NULL
DROP TABLE #tbl_Location_Taxonomy_Pivot_Table;
IF OBJECT_ID('tbl_Location_Taxonomy_NPPES_Flattened', 'U') IS NOT NULL
DROP TABLE tbl_Location_Taxonomy_NPPES_Flattened;
-- Pivot the original table so that you have
SELECT *
INTO #tbl_Location_Taxonomy_Pivot_Table
FROM [MOAD].[dbo].[tbl_Location_Taxonomy_NPPES] tax
PIVOT (MAX(tax.tbl_lkp_Taxonomy_Seq)
FOR tax.Taxonomy_Rank in ([1],[2],[3],[4],[5],[6],[7],[8],[9],[10],[11],[12],[13],[14],[15])) AS pvt
-- ORDER BY Location_ID
-- Flatten the tables.
SELECT Location_ID
,max(piv.[1]) as Tax_Seq_1
,max(piv.[2]) as Tax_Seq_2
,max(piv.[3]) as Tax_Seq_3
,max(piv.[4]) as Tax_Seq_4
,max(piv.[5]) as Tax_Seq_5
,max(piv.[6]) as Tax_Seq_6
,max(piv.[7]) as Tax_Seq_7
,max(piv.[8]) as Tax_Seq_8
,max(piv.[9]) as Tax_Seq_9
,max(piv.[10]) as Tax_Seq_10
,max(piv.[11]) as Tax_Seq_11
,max(piv.[12]) as Tax_Seq_12
,max(piv.[13]) as Tax_Seq_13
,max(piv.[14]) as Tax_Seq_14
,max(piv.[15]) as Tax_Seq_15
-- JOIN HERE
INTO tbl_Location_Taxonomy_NPPES_Flattened
FROM #tbl_Location_Taxonomy_Pivot_Table piv
GROUP BY Location_ID
So, then here is the data I would like to work with in this example.
LocationID Foreign Key
2 2
2 670
2 2902
2 5389
3 3
3 722
3 2905
3 5561
So I have some data that is formatted like this:
I have used pivot on data like this before--But the difference was it had a rank also. Is there a way to get my foreign keys to show up in this format using a pivot?
locationID FK1 FK2 FK3 FK4
2 2 670 2902 5389
3 3 722 2905 5561
Another way I'm looking to solve this is like this:
Another way I could look at doing this is I have the values in:
this form as well:
LocationID Address_Seq
2 670, 5389, 2902, 2,
3 722, 5561, 2905, 3
etc
is there anyway I can get this to be the same?
ID Col1 Col2 Col3 Col4
2 670 5389, 2902, 2
This, adding a rank column and reversing the orders, should gives you what you require:
SELECT locationid, [4] col1, [3] col2, [2] col3, [1] col4
FROM
(
SELECT locationid, foreignkey,rank from #Pivot_Table ----- temp table with a rank column
) x
PIVOT (MAX(x.foreignkey)
FOR x.rank in ([4],[3],[2],[1]) ) pvt
I'm new in kdb/q. And the following is my question. Really hope someone who experts in kdb can help me out.
I have two tables. Table t1 has two attributes: tp_time and id, which looks like:
tp_time id
------------------------------
2018.06.25T00:07:15.822 1
2018.06.25T00:07:45.823 3
2018.06.25T00:09:01.963 8
...
...
Table t2 has three attributes: tp_time, id, and price.
For each id, it has lots of price at different tp_time. So the table t2 is really large, which looks like the following:
tp_time id price
----------------------------------------
2018.06.25T00:05:99.999 1 10.87
2018.06.25T00:06:05.823 1 10.88
2018.06.25T00:06:18.999 1 10.88
...
...
2018.06.25T17:39:20.999 1 10.99
2018.06.25T17:39:23.999 1 10.99
2018.06.25T17:39:24.999 1 10.99
...
...
2018.06.25T01:39:39.999 2 10.99
2018.06.25T01:39:41.999 2 10.99
2018.06.25T01:39:45.999 2 10.99
...
...
What I try to do is for each row in Table t1, find its price at the nearest time and its price at approximately 5 seconds later. For example, for the first row in table t1:
2018.06.25T00:07:15.822 1
The price at nearest time is 10.87 and the price at around 5 seconds later is 10.88. And my expected output table looks like the following:
tp_time id price_1 price_2
----------------------------------------------------
2018.06.25T00:07:15.822 1 10.87 10.88
2018.06.25T00:07:45.823 3 SOME_PRICE SOME_PRICE
2018.06.25T00:09:01.963 8 SOME_PRICE SOME_PRICE
...
...
The thing is I cannot join t1 and t2 because table t2 is so large and I will kill the server. I've try something like ...where tp_time within(time1, time2). But I'm not sure how to deal with the time1 and time2 varibles.
Could someone gives me some helps on this questions? Thanks so much!
I'll recommend organizing the table t1 by applying the proper attributes so that when you join the tables, it will generate the results quickly.
Since you are looking for the prevailing price and price after 5 seconds, You will need wj for this.
the general syntax is :
wj[w;c;t;(q;(f0;c0);(f1;c1))]
w - begin and end time
t & q - unkeyed tables; q should be sorted by `id`time with `p# on id
c- names of the columns to be joined
f0,f1 - aggregation functions
In your case t2 should be sorted by `id`time with `p# on id
q)t2:update `g#id from `id`tp_time xasc ([] tp_time:`time$10:20:30 + asc -10?10 ; id:10?3 ;price:10?10.)
q)t1:([] tp_time:`time$10:20:30 + asc -3?5 ; id:1 1 1 )
q)select from t2 where id=1
tp_time id price
10:20:31.000 1 4.410662
10:20:32.000 1 5.473385
10:20:38.000 1 1.247049
q)wj[(`second$0 5)+\:t1.tp_time;`id`tp_time;t1;(t2;(first;`price);(last;`price))]
tp_time id price price
10:20:30.000 1 4.410662 5.473385
10:20:31.000 1 4.410662 5.473385
10:20:34.000 1 5.473385 1.247049 //price at 32nd second & 38th second
Let's ignore the database design - https://stackoverflow.com/questions/41180638/sql-replacing-an-array-column-of-ids-with-an-array-of-the-records. I'm more just curious if this is possible. I have a table called orders with a column of products. In this column is an array with the ids of all the products that are in the order. Is it possible for me to query for the products and replace the products column with the result? This is what I have so far, but errors for having too many columns on the subquery.
SELECT o.*, ( SELECT p.* FROM products p WHERE p.id = ANY(o.products::int[])) products FROM orders o
Order's Table:
ID Products Status Total
1 [1,2,5] 1 4
2 [1,3,5] 1 5
3 [1,3,6] 1 5
Products Table:
ID Name Price
1 Blue shoe 1
2 Red Shoe 1
3 Green Shoes 2
4 Purple Shoe 1
5 Orange Shoes 2
6 Pink Shoes 2
Desired Output - selecting the first order.
{
ID:1,
Products:[ <Products Record-1>, <Products Record-2>, <Products Record-5>
],
Status: 1,
Total: 4
}