How does a Keycloak client validate a token - keycloak

I would like to know how does a Keycloak client validate the token, other than checking the signature.
I mean if a user has issued a logout request to the OID '/logout' endpoint, the token signature verification would still pass, so if the token has been invalidated by a logout, the client has to go to the KC server. So my question is, does the client go to Keycloak to check that the token is still valid, for every request that my app receives?

In OIDC normally the token is not actively checked by sending it to the keycloak server everytime. Instead the token is only checked locally (by signature verfication with the servers public key).
So you are right, a logout is not immediately recognized by a client.
Because of that you often have a flow where you distinguish between a refresh and access token. The access_token has a really short lifetime (<= 5 minutes), is used to authenticate the user and checked via signature validation.
When the access_token is not valid anymore the client need to use the refresh_token to actively obtain a new access_token from keycloak. In this step keycloak will check if the user is still logged-in before issuing the new token.
Because of that the refresh_token can have a much longer lifetime and it's not always necessary for the user to enter his credentials again.

Related

Stateless Token Auth security

I'm new to ReST and am implementing a ReSTful token authentication, trying to use Django-Rest-Framework JWT, in a mobile web app in the standard way
client sends credentials
server verifies and sends token and expiration date back. Deletes token from db
client calls refresh token when user makes request and token is about to expire
on client request, server verifies token signature
on expired token mobile app logs user out. Mobile app checks expiration not server
I decided to make the mobile app check the expiration date since I read that is ReSTFul, and the server checking it requires it to store tokens which is not ReSTful
I have a few security questions regarding the above implementation:
1) Doesn't obtaining one token give the attacker complete access to the user's login no matter how many token refreshes happen?
Even if it's over https, let's say by some means a token was retrieved by an attacker, i.e. ssl interceptor proxy.Obviously the mobile application won't allow them to login, but they can grab data by calling the api with the token through any HTTP client.
2) What is the purpose of having refreshing tokens in the first place if the server considers all of them as valid?
There seems to be no forward security in this.However, if the server stored the tokens and kept their expiration dates, a complete user compromise would be stopped, but not a per session compromise. Obviously with an SSL interceptor they could still compromise the user, but would need to catch every login. However that implementation is not ReSTful.
First of all, expired tokens are valid tokens, but you can check if token expired or not, before taken any action, and reject the ones expired. There are several things you can do to increase the security of your app:
You can add the hashed password inside token. Therefore if user lost his/her mobile, when password changed in another device, you can reject the tokens with old password hash.
This one is not totally restful, but not that bad as well: you can add a table called revokedTokens in db which keeps track of id of tokens (obviously you should add it to token) user revoked, if you receive request with that token later on, you can reject it until it expires. when it expires you can remove from the table, as expired tokens won't be a problem anyway.
You can add the device's host name when user logs in to the token, and compare it with the request's host name, to have additional layer of security for ssl interceptor attack. Yes, it's not total protection, but still a bit better, as attacker needs to change his/her host name in addition to sending the token from another device.
Hope this helps.

Login with oauth validate token

I want to create an app that will authenticate with my server using oauth.
My question is how will this work?
My client side will communicate using HTTPS with Facebook and get an Access Token. Then it should send it to my server side to authenticate? My server should save the token in the db? How it can validate the token?
how will this work. ?
When the client needs authorization to access some information about the user, the browser (user agent) redirects the resource owner to the OAuth authorization server. There, the user is faced with an authentication dialog (this dialog is not shown if the user is already authenticated), after which he or she is presented an authorization dialog explaining the permissions that the client is requesting, the information that it needs to access or the actions that it needs to do on his or her behalf.
Access Token should send it to my server side to authenticate? or server should save the token in the db?
From what you describe I'd suggest to use a server-side login flow.
-so that the token is already on your server, and doesn't need to be passed from the client. If you're using non-encrypted connections, this could be a security risk.
(after a user successfully signs in, send the user's ID token to your server using HTTPS. Then, on the server, verify the integrity of the ID token and retrieve the user's ID from the sub claim of the ID token. You can use user IDs transmitted in this way to safely identity the currently signed-in user on the backend.)
-See
https://developers.facebook.com/docs/facebook-login/manually-build-a-login-flow/v2.2#login
How to validate token ?
you can follow this link , you will get your step by step solution for an app.
Facebook access token server-side validation for iPhone app

Understanding OAuth2 flow

I'm developing an Android app that consumes a REST service that uses OAuth protocol. In the first activity, app shows a login screen. This is the flow:
1) User puts her username and password.
2) App makes a request to REST service, providing username and password.
3) REST service check the credentials and if are correct, ask for an access_token to my OAuth2 provider server.
4) REST service answers to the app providing the access_token and the refresh_token
5) In the next requests to the REST server (to get data like people, articles...) app will provide the access_token and the refresh_token.
6) When REST service process a request, will validate the access_token (using an token info endpoint of my OAuth server).
7) If the access_token is correct and has not expired, REST service will return the data that the app were asking for.
When REST service detects that access_token has expired, asks for another with using the refresh_roken.
Now, my questions:
When REST service retrieve a new access_token after the old one expires, has the REST service send it to the app in that response?
If so, has the app check, in each request/response, if new a new access_token has been sent from the REST service?
I don't know if I'm in the right way, I'm trying to understand the flow.
Thanks.
Assuming there's no browser involved and the app (aka. Client) uses what is called the Resource Owner Password Credentials grant, the flow is:
the User (aka. Resource Owner) provides his/her username and password to the Client
the Client makes a Token Request to the Authorization Server, providing username and password
the Authorization Server checks the credentials and if they are correct, it provides an access token and optionally a refresh token to the Client in the response
in the requests to the REST server (to get data like people, articles...) the Client will provide the access token
when the REST service process a request, it will validate the access token calling the token validation endpoint of the Authorization Server or by validating the token locally (e.g. if the access token is a JWT).
if the access token is correct, has not expired and has the right permissions (aka. "scopes"), the REST service will return the data that the Client was asking for
when the Client detects that access_token has expired (e.g. because the REST server returns an error), it asks the Authorization Server for another access token using the refresh token using the so-called Refresh Token grant/flow
OAuth 2.0 flows:
An application registers with the auth provider e.g. Facebook, Google, etc with app name, website and callback/postback URL
The application receives the client id and secret from the auth provider
The application user accesses the auth provider for authentication and user approves the resource permissions
The auth provider returns the auth token with respect to the user permissions to the application
The application accesses the resource provider using the auth tokens
The resource provider returns the protected resources after validating the auth tokens to the application
Do comment if you need more understanding!

is the Authorization code in OAuth 2 is used only once for the lifetime of the client Application running server?

I am reading this blog on how OAuth2 works. It is an excellent source and I guess I have understood the basics of how OAuth2 works.
when reading about Authorization grant, that involves granting access to the Application server (my server) which exchanges the authorization code it received from authorization sever (eg facebook) through the redirect URI registered.
myserver then exchanges this authorization code for access_token and refresh token. when the access token is expired, refresh token is used to get a new access token.
Q1) From this flow, I see that the authorization code given by facebook is used only once from my server to get the access_token. For subsequent requests, this authorization code is not used. Is this correct ?
If the user log-in to my server after 3 days during which the access token has expired, my server will use refresh token to get a new access token and use this access token.
Q2) Does the refresh token expire or each time a refresh token is used to get a new access token, a new refresh token is provided?
Q1) RFC6749, Section 4.1.2 Authorization Response: The client MUST NOT use the authorization code more than once.
Q2) RFC6749, Section 6 Refreshing an Access Token: The authorization server MAY issue a new refresh token, in which case the client MUST discard the old refresh token and replace it with the new refresh token.

Facebook OAuth 2.0 "code" and "token"

Why do you need both a "code" and a "token" in the Facebook OAuth2 authentication flow as described here: https://developers.facebook.com/docs/authentication/ ?
If you look at the OAuth dialog reference (https://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/dialogs/oauth/), it seems like you only ever use the token to fetch information about the user, and if you specify the response_type parameter as token or code,token, then you get the token on the first time.
Why do you need to get a "code" and then use the code to get a "token" as opposed to getting the token directly?
I guess I'm misunderstanding something basic about how OAuth works, but it seems you avoid the request to https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token entirely if you get the token the first time with the dialog.
Let us take a simple example to differentiate authentication code vs access token.
You as a user want to try a new Facebook app called Highjack.
So you click on the application and the Highjack app asks you to log into your Facebook account. When you are done, Facebook generates an authentication code for you.
This code is then passed to the Highjack server which uses its own FB client id, FB secret and your authentication code to get an access token.
In the above example the authentication code is confirming you as a user is a valid FB user. But the second steps says "you as a FB user is giving access to the Highjack app for certain resources".
If the Highjack app wanted implicit grant (i.e direct access token), then the access token would be visible to you also since it is being exchanged with the browser. This means you can now call all Facebook APIs on behalf of Highjack using the access token. (You can only use the access token to get your personal information but Facebook has no way of knowing who is calling their APIs.)
Since we have 2 parties (You and Highjack) authenticating with Facebook we have this 2 fold mechanism.
Borrowed shamelessly from Salesforce Documentation:
Authorization Code
An authorization code is a short-lived token representing the user's access grant, created by the authorization server and passed to the client application via the browser. The client application sends the authorization code to the authorization server to obtain an access token and, optionally, a refresh token.
Access Token
The access token is used by the client to make authenticated requests on behalf of the end user. It has a longer lifetime than the authorization code, typically on the order of minutes or hours. When the access token expires, attempts to use it will fail, and a new access token must be obtained via a refresh token.
From the OAuth 2.0 Spec:
The authorization code provides a few important security benefits
such as the ability to authenticate the client, and the transmission
of the access token directly to the client without passing it through
the resource owner's user-agent, potentially exposing it to others,
including the resource owner.
So, basically - the main reason is to limit the # of actors getting the access token.
"token" response is intended primarily for clients that live in the browser (e.g.: JavaScript client).
Answer) You need/want both the code and token for extra security.
According to Nate Barbettini we want the extra step of exchanging the authentication code for the access token, because the authentication code can be used in the front channel (less secure), and the access token can be used in the back channel (more secure).
Thus, the security benefit is that the access token isn't exposed to the browser, and thus cannot be intercepted/grabbed from a browser. We trust the web server more, which communicates via back channels. The access token, which is secret, can then remain on the web server, and not be exposed to the browser (i.e. front channels).
For more information, watch this fantastic video:
OAuth 2.0 and OpenID Connect (in plain English)
https://youtu.be/996OiexHze0?t=26m30s (Start 26 mins)
If you look at the flow of Authorization Code OAuth type, yes, there are actuary two steps:
<user_session_id, client_id> => authorization_code
<client_id, redirect_uri, authorization_code, client_secret> => access_token, refresh_token
In step1: the user tells the OAuth Server that "I want to auth this client (client_id) to access my resource. Here is my authentication (user_session_id or what else)"
In step2: the client (client_id) tells the OAuth server that "I've got the user the authorization (authorization_code), please give me an access token for later access. And this is my authentication (client_id & client_secret)"
You see, if we omit step 2, then there is no guarantee for client authentication. Any client can invoke step1 with a different client_id and get an access token for that client_id instead of its own. That's why we need step2.
If you really want to combine step1 and step2, you can do something like this:
<client_id, redirect_uri, client_secret> => access_token, refresh_token
We use this approach in our Open API Platform, and we haven't find any security problem yet.
BTW, there is actually an Implicit Grant type, that is:
<client_id, redirect_uri> => access_token, refresh_token
It is generally applicable to client only application which have no server backend. In that case, the OAuth server must ensure that the redirect URI belongs to that client (same with the register redirect_uri, for example).
The mix-up came because the user on behalf of himself and not the client app authenticate against the authorization server (i.e. facebook).
Its much simple to secure the client app (with https) then the user-agent (browser).
Here is the original formulation from IETF-oauth (https://datatracker.ietf.org/doc/html/draft-ietf-oauth-v2-threatmodel-08#section-3.4):
3.4. Authorization Code
An authorization code represents the intermediate result of a
successful end-user authorization process and is used by the client
to obtain access and refresh token. Authorization codes are sent to
the client's redirection URI instead of tokens for two purposes.
Browser-based flows expose protocol parameters to potential
attackers via URI query parameters (HTTP referrer), the browser
cache, or log file entries and could be replayed. In order to
reduce this threat, short-lived authorization codes are passed
instead of tokens and exchanged for tokens over a more secure
direct connection between client and authorization server.
It is much simpler to authenticate clients during the direct
request between client and authorization server than in the
context of the indirect authorization request. The latter would
require digital signatures.
Theoretically,
Access Tokens cannot tell us if the user has authenticated but auth code does.
Auth code should not be used to gain access to an API but access token should be.
If you have a single page application or mobile application with no or minimum backend, your application may want to access user's FB data directly at frontend. Hence the access token is provided.
In another case, you may want a user to register/login to your app using some external auth service provider like Facebook, Google etc. In this case, your frontend will send the auth code to the backend that can be used to get access token from Facebook at serverside. Now your server becomes enabled to access user's FB data from the server.
Basically, as an extension of Lix's answer, the access code route allows a Resource Owner (i.e. the Facebook User) to revoke authorization for their User Agent (i.e. their browser), e.g. by logging off, without revoking authorization for an offline Client (i.e. Your Application).
If this is not important, then there is no need to use the access code route.
Furthermore, the access code is provided to ensure that the Token provided to a server is actually registered to the Resource Owner (i.e. the Facebook User), and not the User Agent (or a Man-in-the-Middle).
This seems similar to the question of either choosing the implicit vs authorization code grant flow. In fact, here is what looks like an opposite view point?!.
Also, as Drew mentioned,
When the access token expires, attempts to use it will fail, and a new access token must be obtained via a refresh token.
another piece is the refresh token, but I don't see that being explained too well in the FB Docs. If I'm correct, the implicit grant (the direct token) should be really short lived, but that is to-be-enforced and FB.js seems to hide a lot of that (this one I have not looked as deep into).
If I'm correct, the code%20token is an optimization allowing both the User Agent to have a token and allowing for the server to initiate the token exchange process in a single request (as anything over Network IO is considered expensive, especially to a User Agent).
In OAuth 2.0 with facebook, the overall concept is simple as follows.
Step 1. Obtain "Authorization Code" by a GET request
request URI: https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth
Params:
response_type=code
client_id={add your "App id" got by registering app}
redirect_uri={add redirect uri defined at the registration of app}
scope={add the scope needed in your app}
Headers: None
Step 2. Obtain the "Access Token" by sending the authorization code as a POST request
URI: https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token
Params:
grant_type=authorization_code
client_id=<add your "App id" got by registering app>
redirect_uri=<add redirect uri defined at the registration of app>
code=<obtained authorization code from previous step>
Headers:
Authorization:Basic encode <App Id:App Secret> with base64
Content-Type:application/json
Step 3. Use the access token got from above step and retrieve user resources
It’s because the access token is given to an AUTHENTICATED client (third-party app) using a shared secret that only FB and the client knows. The only way that the user could directly request the access token is by knowing the shared secret, which would make the secret public and could lead to a man-in-the-middle attack. Further, while FB can guarantee a secure connection to the user, FB can’t guarantee the handoff of the token to the client is secure. However, FB (and OAuth2) does require a secure connection between the client and FB. The access token is tied to the client public ID (usually hashed), which means only the original client application can use it to request the token because the secret is sent along with the authorization code to get the access token.
You recieve a token when the user logs in. But you might want to change the token when you are performing other actions. EG posting as your app/page or posting as a user with offline_access.