Ortools - VRP Allow for violation of constraint - or-tools

Is it possible in ortool's vrp model to allow for violation of a constraint (sometimes called a soft-constraint)? E.g. Say each route should pick up a minimum volume of x in some unit, can I configure or-tools such that it will also return me tours subjected that this constraint is not always met?
Looking at the penalties section I get the impression that when configured with addDisjunction or-tools will drop a visit if this makes a solution feasible. However, the problem I have at hand is quite the opposite: the visit shouldn't be dropped and instead, the constraint should be violated, subjected to some penalty.

You should create a "Volume" dimension and use on the end node:
void RoutingDimension::SetCumulVarSoftLowerBound(int64 index, int64 lower_bound, int64 coefficient);
ref: https://github.com/google/or-tools/blob/858fa626959f7e386153af82756384b79f983b5a/ortools/constraint_solver/routing.h#L2236-L2249

Related

Optaplanner: How to leave planning variables as null if it breaks hard constraint

The behaviour i'm seeing in the results is that two courses that can only be in one time period (like Monday 9am) is both being set in the same period anyway despite having a hard constraint. What I would like to happen is that one of them be set to null so i can retrieve them later on and inform the user.
Is there a configuration for this? If not, how should I handle cases like this? I'm expecting that hard constraints be broken in my applications but what's important to me is i can notify the user which courses cannot be scheduled, so he can schedule it himself (via UI).
Here's is the relevant hard constraint rule:
rule "roomOccupancy"
when
Lecture(period != null, $leftPeriod:period, room != null, $leftRoom: room)
Lecture(eval($leftPeriod.overlaps(period) == true), $leftRoom == room)
then
scoreHolder.addHardConstraintMatch(kcontext, -1);
end
If I understand correctly, you want one of the courses to be left unassigned in the schedule, if a certain constraint is broken. By default, each planning entity will be planned. The solution with the highest score will get be still a solution.
I suggest that you have a look at over-constrained planning: where you assign as many entities as possible without breaking hard constraints. With over-constraint planning, entities can be left unassigned.

Rewards instead of penalty in optaplanner

So I have lectures and time periods and some lectures need to be taught in a specific time period. How do i do that?
Does scoreHolder.addHardConstraintMatch(kcontext, 10); solve this as a hard constraint? Does the value of positive 10 ensure the constraint of courses being in a specific time period?
I'm aware of the Penalty pattern but I don't want to make a lot of CoursePeriodPenalty objects. Ideally, i'd like to only have one CoursePeriodReward object to say that CS101 should be in time period 9:00-10:00
Locking them with Immovable planning entities won't work as I suspect you still want OptaPlanner to decide the room for you - and currently optaplanner only supports MovableSelectionFilter per entity, not per variable (vote for the open jira for that).
A positive hard constraint would definitely work. Your score will be harder to interpret for your users though, for example a solution with a hard score of 0 won't be feasible (either it didn't get that +10 hard points or it lost 10 hard points somewhere else).
Or you could add a new negative hard constraint type that says if != desiredTimeslot then loose 10 points.

Optaplanner: Generating a partial solution to VRP where trucks and/or stops may remain unassigned based on Time windows

I am solving a variation on vehicle routing problem. The model worked until I implemented a change where certain vehicles and/or stops may remain unassigned because the construction filter does not allow the move due to time window considerations (late arrival not allowed).
The problem size is 2 trucks/3 stops. truck_1 has 2 stops (Stop_1 and Stop_2) assigned to it, and consequently 1 truck and 1 stop remain unassigned since truck_2 will arrive late to Stop_3.
I have the following error:
INFO o.o.c.i.c.DefaultConstructionHeuristicPhase - Construction Heuristic phase (0) ended: step total (2), time spent (141), best score (-164hard/19387soft).
java.lang.IllegalStateException: Local Search phase started with an uninitialized Solution. First initialize the Solution. For example, run a Construction Heuristic phase first.
at org.optaplanner.core.impl.localsearch.DefaultLocalSearchPhase.phaseStarted(DefaultLocalSearchPhase.java:119)
at org.optaplanner.core.impl.localsearch.DefaultLocalSearchPhase.solve(DefaultLocalSearchPhase.java:60)
at org.optaplanner.core.impl.solver.DefaultSolver.runPhases(DefaultSolver.java:213)
at org.optaplanner.core.impl.solver.DefaultSolver.solve(DefaultSolver.java:176)
I tried to set the planning variable to null (nullable = true) but it seems it is not allowed in case of chained variables.
I am using Optaplanner 6.2.
Please help,
Thank you,
Piyush
Your construction filter may be too restrictive, it could prevent the construction heuristic from creating an initialized solution. You should remove the time window constraint from the construction filter and add it as a hard score constraint in your score calculator instead.
From the Optaplanner docs:
Instead of implementing a hard constraint, it can sometimes be built in. For example: If Lecture A should never be assigned to Room X, but it uses ValueRangeProvider on Solution, so the Solver will often try to assign it to Room X too (only to find out that it breaks a hard constraint). Use a ValueRangeProvider on the planning entity or filtered selection to define that Course A should only be assigned a Room different than X.
This can give a good performance gain in some use cases, not just because the score calculation is faster, but mainly because most optimization algorithms will spend less time evaluating unfeasible solutions. However, usually this not a good idea because there is a real risk of trading short term benefits for long term harm:
Many optimization algorithms rely on the freedom to break hard constraints when changing planning entities, to get out of local optima.
Both implementation approaches have limitations (feature compatiblity, disabling automatic performance optimizations, ...), as explained in their documentation.

Limit student to select only one job offer

I have a database using PostgreSQL, which holds data on students, applications and job offers.
Is there some kind of constraint that will mean a student can only accept one job offer. So by selecting 'yes' on 'job accepted' attribute, they can no longer do this for any other jobs they may receive?
It is not exactly a "constraint". It is just a column. In the Student table have a column called AcceptedJobOffer. That solves the direct problem. In addition, you want the following:
AcceptedJobOfferId int references JobOffers(JobOfferid)
And, then create a unique index on Applications for StudentId, JobOfferId and include:
foreign key (StudentId, AcceptedJobOfferId) references Applications(StudentId, JobOfferId)
This ensures that the job offer is a valid job and that it references an application (assuming that an application is a requirement -- 100% of the time -- for acceptance).
I imagine you've some kind of job applications table, which has a field called is_accepted in it or something to that order. You can add an exclude constraint on it. Example here.
An alternative is to add an accepted_job_id column (ideally a foreign key) to the students table, as already suggested by Gordon.
Side note: If this is going to be dealing with real data, rather than theoretical data in a database course, you probably do not want to enforce the constraint at all. Sometimes, people want or need multiple jobs, so limiting the system in such a way that they cannot apply to more than one job introduces an artificial limitation which may come back and bite you down the road.

CHECK CONSTRAINT text is changed by SQL Server. How do I avoid or work around this?

When I define a CHECK CONSTRAINT on a table, I find the condition clause stored can be different than what I entered.
Example:
Alter table T1 add constraint C1 CHECK (field1 in (1,2,3))
Looking at what is stored:
select cc.Definition from sys.check_constraints cc
inner join sys.objects o on o.object_id = cc.parent_object_id
where cc.type = 'C' and cc.name = 'T1';
I see:
([field1]=(3) OR [field1]=(2) OR [field1]=(1))
Whilst these are equivalent, they are not the same text.
(A similar behaviour occurs when using a BETWEEN clause).
My reason for wishing this did not happen is that I am trying to programatically ensure that all my CHECK constraints are correct by comparing the text I would use to define
the constraint with that stored in sys.check_constraints - and if different then drop and recreate the constraint.
However, in these cases, they are always different and so the program would always think it needs to recreate the constraint.
Question is:
Is there any known reason why SQL Server does this translation? Is it just removing a bit of syntactic sugar and storing the clause in a simpler form?
Is there a way to avoid the behaviour (other than to write my constraint clauses in the long form to match what SQL Server would change it to)?
Is there another way to tell if my check constraint is 'out of date' and needs recreating?
Is there any known reason why SQL Server does this translation? Is it just removing a bit of syntactic sugar and storing the clause in a simpler form?
I'm not aware of any reasons documented in the Books Online, or elsewhere. However, my guess is that it's normalized for some purposes that are internal to SQL Server. It might allow SQL Server to be a bit lenient in defining the expression (such as using Database for a column name), but guaranteeing that the column names are always appropriately escaped for whatever engine needs to parse the expression (ie, [Database]).
Is there a way to avoid the behaviour (other than to write my constraint clauses in the long form to match what SQL Server would change it to)?
Probably not. But if your constraints aren't terribly complicated, is re-writing the constraint clauses in the long form such a bad idea?
Is there another way to tell if my check constraint is 'out of date' and needs recreating?
Before I answer this directly, I'd point out that there's a bit of programming philosophy involved here. The API that SQL Server provides for the text of a CHECK constraint only guarantees that you'll get something equivalent to the original expression. While you could certainly build some fancy methods to try to ensure that you'll always be able to reproduce SQL Server's normalized version of the expression, there's no guarantee that Microsoft won't change its normalization rules in the future. And indeed, there's probably no guarantee that two equivalent expressions will always be normalized identically!
So, I'd first advise you to re-examine your architecture, and see if you can accomplish the same result without having to rely on undocumented API behavior.
Having said that, there are a number of methods outlined in this question (and answer).
Another alternative, which is a bit more brute-force but perhaps acceptable, would be to always assume that the expression is "out of date" and simply drop/re-create the constraint every time you check. Unless you're expecting these constraints to frequently become out-of-date (or the tables are quite large), it seems this would be a decent solution. You could probably even run it in a transaction, so that if the new constraint is already violated, simply roll-back the transaction and report the error.