In my application, users can perform some tasks without login via the keycloak. After performing the task, I want to get an access token from keycloak by giving the username of the user to automatically log the user into application. Assume the user has a registered user account in keycloak too. is there a way to obtain an access token with username only?
In my application, users can perform some tasks without login via the
keycloak.
Unless those users are authenticated via some external IDP and you have established a trust-relationship between your external IDP and Keycloak (have a look at this SO thread for potential solution for a similar question to yours) in short I would say no.
From auth0:
Access tokens are used in token-based authentication to allow an
application to access an API. The application receives an access token
after a user successfully authenticates and authorizes access, then
passes the access token as a credential when it calls the target API.
The point is exactly that, exchanging some kind of authentication information (.e.g., username and password, or client secret) for a token that proves to your application that the user has authenticated successfully. Otherwise, someone could just enter your system as long as it had access to a username.
It sounds to me that you want to use the access token has means to pass information between Keycloak and your app, for that you have for sure better options.
Related
(Background: I am trying to use my website hosted on wix as a simple identity provider so my members can access a separate sveltekit app I am creating--without logging in again--on a separate server because I do not think I can create the app on the wix platform. Basically I just need the user id, but I would like to also ensure they are in fact authenticated on my Wix hosted site before granting access).
In multiple pages explaining single sign on, it is explained that when my browser requests a protected resource from a web server, the server can (if it is configured to do so) verify my identity via a separate identity provider. This is done via a redirect to the identify provider. If I am not authenticated by the identify provider, I am asked to authenticate (by entering username and password, or whatever).
Once I am authenticated (by logging in or by verifying the presence of a valid session id on the identify provider's server from a prior login), the identify provider then "redirects with token" or a "token can be passed to the original domain by a redirect" according to these web sites I have encountered.
But what does it mean to "redirect with token"? This conflicts with other reading I have done which points out that redirects cannot have authentication or other headers or data associated with them.
How does it come to pass that (1) the web server I made my original request from gets my token from the identify provider while at the same time (2) returning my requested resource to my browser instead of back to the identity provider's server?
"Redirect with token" is a common method used in single sign-on (SSO) systems to authenticate users. In this method, when a user tries to access a protected resource on a server, the server redirects the user's browser to the SSO login page, along with a token that identifies the resource being accessed and the server that is requesting authentication.
The user then enters their login credentials on the SSO login page. If the credentials are correct, the SSO system authenticates the user and sends them back to the original server, along with a token that indicates that the user has been authenticated. The server checks the token to confirm that the user has been authenticated, and if the token is valid, the user is granted access to the protected resource.
Redirecting with a token is a secure and efficient way to authenticate users across multiple servers, as it allows the servers to rely on the SSO system to authenticate users and eliminates the need for each server to store and manage its own set of login credentials.
I have a question regarding Keycloak and obtaining an Access Token.
Our setup is as follows:
· users are created and maintained in Keycloak
· resources, policies and permissions are also maintained in Keycloak
Our use case is:
As a third party application, I want to obtain authorization information (e.g. resource- and scope-based permissions) for a specific user by only providing the username to Keycloak, so I can allow or prohibit further actions.
To be more specific:
In our application the need to validate each request to other services based on the access token.But we have only the user name with us.
The question is now:
> How can we obtain an access token for the user by only knowing the username ?
>
Is there a solution to obtain an access token for such a user?
You don't specify in your question if the current user is logged in. Are you validating user specific actions, or you want to retrieve user roles for the application instead?
The user is logged in and he is performing some action
I suppose you're using some keycloak adapter. Then just retrieve the session object and you should have the extra info somewhere in there.
If not, you can just parse the request yourself. When using OpenId Connect, the access token is always sent for each of the requests, in the Authorization header. The token is base64 encoded, you can decode the token yourself.
The application is performing some action for some registered user, without him logged in
User access tokens are meant to provide permissions for users. As you say in your question: As a third party application, I want... so here you are not acting as a logged user, but as an application, so you need to go with client credentials instead. Just give the client permissions to list all the users and their roles (probably it's enough with the view-users role, see the link below) and log in with client credentials grant. Then you can handle fine grained permissions in your application business logic.
See also:
Keycloak Client Credentials Flow Clarification
Keycloak spring security client credential grant
How to get Keycloak users via REST without admin account
For those who really needs to impersonate a user from a client, there is a new RFC for this : token-echange.
Keycloak loosely implement it at the time of this answer
See particularly https://www.keycloak.org/docs/latest/securing_apps/#direct-naked-impersonation
I'm trying to figure out how to use the Azure Graph API to query a user's full name (first and last) from a given username. I understand I can do this with the following Graph API call...
https://graph.windows.net/myorganization/users/{user_id}?api-version
However, I am not sure how I go about getting an access token to use with this, because this process will be called without a user logging in, which is usually how we obtain an access token.
Is there anyway I can pass a username/password to a given URL using cURL or something and obtain an access token that way, so it is done behind-the-scenes?
There are two main authentication methods which are supported by OAuth 2:
Authorization Code Grant Flow
Client Credentials Grant Flow
The first flow requires a user agent to be present to sign into the client service and results in a delegated token. The second method does not require a user to sign in, as it only authenticates using the client secret; this results in an app only token.
If you want to create a background service that captures data from the AAD Graph API, you can absolutely do this using the Client Credentials Grant Flow, which does not require a user to be present at any point during the authentication flow.
You simply need to configure your application to to have app only scopes. Read here: Permission scopes | Graph API concepts. App only scopes all require tenant administrators to consent to the application in order to get access to data.
Finally, I feel I must mention that there is another less used flow specified in the OAuth 2 spec: Resource Owner Password Credentials Grant. This flow specifies how a client application who has knowledge of a user's username and password could directly pass those parameters and get an access token on behalf of the user. However using this flow is not good practice at all.
The resource owner password credentials grant type is suitable in
cases where the resource owner has a trust relationship with the
client, such as the device operating system or a highly privileged
application. The authorization server should take special care when
enabling this grant type and only allow it when other flows are not
viable.
We support this in our V1 endpoint, but not in our new V2 endpoint. You can read this blog to learn more.
I want to create an app that will authenticate with my server using oauth.
My question is how will this work?
My client side will communicate using HTTPS with Facebook and get an Access Token. Then it should send it to my server side to authenticate? My server should save the token in the db? How it can validate the token?
how will this work. ?
When the client needs authorization to access some information about the user, the browser (user agent) redirects the resource owner to the OAuth authorization server. There, the user is faced with an authentication dialog (this dialog is not shown if the user is already authenticated), after which he or she is presented an authorization dialog explaining the permissions that the client is requesting, the information that it needs to access or the actions that it needs to do on his or her behalf.
Access Token should send it to my server side to authenticate? or server should save the token in the db?
From what you describe I'd suggest to use a server-side login flow.
-so that the token is already on your server, and doesn't need to be passed from the client. If you're using non-encrypted connections, this could be a security risk.
(after a user successfully signs in, send the user's ID token to your server using HTTPS. Then, on the server, verify the integrity of the ID token and retrieve the user's ID from the sub claim of the ID token. You can use user IDs transmitted in this way to safely identity the currently signed-in user on the backend.)
-See
https://developers.facebook.com/docs/facebook-login/manually-build-a-login-flow/v2.2#login
How to validate token ?
you can follow this link , you will get your step by step solution for an app.
Facebook access token server-side validation for iPhone app
I have a scenario where a user has logged into to a web application (authenticated with OpenID Connect) and then needs to access data from a separate REST service.
The REST service needs to determine whether or not the user has permission to access the requested data, but if the user does have permission, then it should grant authorization to the web application without requiring the user to interact with the UI.
Essentially, what I need is a two-legged OAuth solution where the client/relying party is fully trusted but the user, who's already been authenticated, is not.
Going in, I assumed that OAuth could accommodate these requirements, but none of the grant types seem to match the requirements:
Authorization Code is the opposite of what I need, as the user is pretty much automatically trusted but the client is not, requiring that the user grant access to the client via a web form.
Client Credentials trusts the client (which is what I need) but does not give the service an opportunity to determine if the user has permission to the resource (user auth tokens are not passed to the service, making all requests essentially "anonymous").
ROPC (Resource Owner Password Credentials) would appear to be the only option, but requires the web application to know and possibly store the users' login credentials (which is untenable).
Is this a gap in OAuth? Or am I misunderstanding these grant types? If OAuth can't support this scenario, is there another widely adopted open standard that I've missed?
Of note: I only own/control the web application, while the customers (all of which are businesses) own/control both the authentication servers and the REST services. Therefore, a shared, non-proprietary standard is necessary so that our customers will know how to configure their services (IBM, Microsoft, whatever) and so that I'll know how to pass along any authentication tokens, etc.
I think this is possible using normal OAuth2 flows. You have your web application use the code authorization grant to get a token to call the API on behalf of the user.
Your web application makes the call to the API attaching the JWT token in the Authorization header. If the REST service determines the user does not have permission to access the resource, it returns a 401 Unauthorized HTTP response code.
Your web application handles the 401 response by going back to the authorization server and using the client credentials grant to get an access token to call the REST API on behalf of the client itself.
As both grants allow you to get a refresh token, you should be able to switch between access tokens easily.
If there is no trust relationship between the web application and the REST service, there's no way around using the Authorization Code grant since the user needs to be involved anyhow to allow the web application to make the call on behalf of the user.
If there is a trust relationship between web application and REST service you should be able to use the regular OpenID Connect flow to get an access token to the web application at login time that can also be used in calls towards the REST service.
You may pass on the user information as part of a JWT (i.e. a structured) access token that is signed by the web application itself or the OP; that would be OAuth 2.0 compliant. See https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc6749#section-1.4 and May an OAuth 2.0 access token be a JWT?.